fluidistic
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If one consider a 1 dimensional potential of the form V(x)=0 for x<0 and V(x)=V_0 for x \geq 0.
The corresponding Schrödinger's equation for the region greater than 0, is \Psi '' (x)+ \Psi (x) \frac{(E-V_0)2m}{\hbar ^2}=0.
Now if E=V_0, the solution to this equation is a straight line \Psi (x)=ax+b. However since the region is infinitely large, there is no values for a and b other than 0 that will normalize \Psi, hence we must conclude that \Psi (x)=0 in this region.
Fine, that mean for E=V_0, there is a total reflection of a particle coming from the left (from negative x).
However if E\neq V_0 (for both E<V_0 and E>v_0), there's no total reflection, quite strange. I'm trying to understand the physical meaning of that. It's like there's a well definite energy that isn't allowed for a particle to pass the potential.
If we now consider a region V(x)=\infty for x<0, V(x)=V_0 for 0 \leq x \leq a and V(x)=\infty for x>a, and if E=V_0, then I think there's an infinity of possible solutions. I mean there are an infinite number of constants A and B such that \int_0 ^a |Ax+B|^2 dx =1. I don't think it's possible physically, so what's going on?
By the way I get the condition \frac{A^2 a^3}{3}+ a^2|AB| + B^2 a =1.
And also in the case of having a region of potential of the form V(x)=0 for x<0, V(x)=V_0 for 0 \leq x \leq a and V(x)=0 for x>a, the same problem appears in the central region. It seems like the particle can have infinitely many different \Psi (x) which doesn't make sense to me.
What's happening?
The corresponding Schrödinger's equation for the region greater than 0, is \Psi '' (x)+ \Psi (x) \frac{(E-V_0)2m}{\hbar ^2}=0.
Now if E=V_0, the solution to this equation is a straight line \Psi (x)=ax+b. However since the region is infinitely large, there is no values for a and b other than 0 that will normalize \Psi, hence we must conclude that \Psi (x)=0 in this region.
Fine, that mean for E=V_0, there is a total reflection of a particle coming from the left (from negative x).
However if E\neq V_0 (for both E<V_0 and E>v_0), there's no total reflection, quite strange. I'm trying to understand the physical meaning of that. It's like there's a well definite energy that isn't allowed for a particle to pass the potential.
If we now consider a region V(x)=\infty for x<0, V(x)=V_0 for 0 \leq x \leq a and V(x)=\infty for x>a, and if E=V_0, then I think there's an infinity of possible solutions. I mean there are an infinite number of constants A and B such that \int_0 ^a |Ax+B|^2 dx =1. I don't think it's possible physically, so what's going on?
By the way I get the condition \frac{A^2 a^3}{3}+ a^2|AB| + B^2 a =1.
And also in the case of having a region of potential of the form V(x)=0 for x<0, V(x)=V_0 for 0 \leq x \leq a and V(x)=0 for x>a, the same problem appears in the central region. It seems like the particle can have infinitely many different \Psi (x) which doesn't make sense to me.
What's happening?