Special Case of the Baire Category Theorem

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1. So the solutions claim a different and better proof of this, but I just wanted to see if mine made sense.

Question - Let X be a compact Hausdorff space; let {An} be a countable collection of closed sets of X. Show that if each set An has empty interior in X, then the union \bigcupAn has empty interior in X.

Homework Equations



If X is compact Hausdorff with no isolated points, for any nonempty open set U of X and any point x of X, there exists a nonempty open set V contained in U such that x\notin\overline{V}.

The Attempt at a Solution



Now that I've seen the solution it seems obvious, but here is what I did.

If we let Int(\bigcupAn)=U and take a point xi of Ai, then there exists an open set Vi \subset Int(\bigcupAn) s.t. x\notin\overline{V}i. We can form this construction because we can choose a point in Int(\bigcupAn) different from x, because if not, then we would either have an empty interior (in the case where x\notin Int(\bigcupAn) ) or we would have a one-point open set (in the case where x\in Int(\bigcupAn) , which would mean that Ai for some i has non-empty interior. Then by the Hausdorff property, there is a W1 and W2 about x and y respectively, that are disjoint. Then W2\bigcapInt(\bigcupAn) is an open set contained in Int(\bigcupAn), not containing x. It follow that the closure of this set, which I'll call V, does not contain x.

Then we can choose \overline{V}1 \supset \overline{V}2 \supset ...

And since X is compact, there exists an x in this infinite intersection. Then, since U is the union of {An}, x must be contained in Ai for some i. But then \overline{V}i \cap Ai is a closed set containing x but not xi. Then the complement of \overline{V}i \cap Ai in Ai is open and non empty in Ai, implying that Ai has non-empty interior, a contradiction.
 
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sammycaps said:
1. So the solutions claim a different and better proof of this, but I just wanted to see if mine made sense.

Question - Let X be a compact Hausdorff space; let {An} be a countable collection of closed sets of X. Show that if each set An has empty interior in X, then the union \bigcupAn has empty interior in X.

Homework Equations



If X is compact Hausdorff with no isolated points, for any nonempty open set U of X and any point x of X, there exists a nonempty open set V contained in U such that x\notin\overline{V}.

The Attempt at a Solution



Now that I've seen the solution it seems obvious, but here is what I did.

If we let Int(\bigcupAn)=U and take a point xi of Ai, then there exists an open set Vi \subset Int(\bigcupAn) s.t. x\notin\overline{V}i. We can form this construction because we can choose a point in Int(\bigcupAn) different from x, because if not, then we would either have an empty interior (in the case where x\notin Int(\bigcupAn) ) or we would have a one-point open set (in the case where x\in Int(\bigcupAn) , which would mean that Ai for some i has non-empty interior. Then by the Hausdorff property, there is a W1 and W2 about x and y respectively, that are disjoint. Then W2\bigcapInt(\bigcupAn) is an open set contained in Int(\bigcupAn), not containing x. It follow that the closure of this set, which I'll call V, does not contain x.

Then we can choose \overline{V}1 \supset \overline{V}2 \supset ...

And since X is compact, there exists an x in this infinite intersection. Then, since U is the union of {An}, x must be contained in Ai for some i. But then \overline{V}i \cap Ai is a closed set containing x but not xi. Then the complement of \overline{V}i \cap Ai in Ai is open and non empty in Ai, implying that Ai has non-empty interior, a contradiction.

It doesn't really seem obvious to me that the x that you constructed actually lies in U. Sure, every V_i lies in U. But you're taking the intersections of the \overline{V_i}. Do those necessarily lie in U?

also, you seem to make LaTeX more difficult than it needs to be. If you want to type \overline{V_i}, then you can do this by

Code:
[itеx]\overline{V_i}[/itex]

This seems a lot easier than using the [NOPARSE]...[/NOPARSE] tags.

Here is a LaTeX FAQ: https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3977517&postcount=3
 
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micromass said:
It doesn't really seem obvious to me that the x that you constructed actually lies in U. Sure, every V_i lies in U. But you're taking the intersections of the \overline{V_i}. Do those necessarily lie in U?

O, I did not see that. Its not obvious to me that x lies in U, and I don't know whether or not its true. Thanks for pointing that out.

Maybe I don't actually need x to be in U, only for x to be in \bigcup{An}. Still though, its not clear to me that is true.

Anyway, maybe this proof just doesn't work.
 
sammycaps said:
O, I did not see that. Its not obvious to me that x lies in U, and I don't know whether or not its true. Thanks for pointing that out.

Maybe I don't actually need x to be in U, only for x to be in \bigcup{An}. Still though, its not clear to me that is true.

Anyway, maybe this proof just doesn't work.

I'm thinking that you might be able to fix it by taking an open set U^\prime such that \overline{U^\prime}\subseteq U that is nonempty. Then you might take care that all the V_i\subseteq U^\prime. That would for the intersection of the \overline{V_i} to be in U.

I didn't really work it out, but you can try some trickery like this.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...

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