ManDay
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According to the lecture I'm hearing the SE can be simplified for the cases of a timeinvariant potential and a constant potential:
Time invariant
\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2} = 2\frac m{\hbar^2}(V(x)-E)\psi.
Then, the lecture states that for the case of the potential being not just time but also spatially invariant it can be simplified to
\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2} = -k^2\psi
My question is, why this is said to be possible, only if the potential is constant. Given the term V(x) - E we can conclude that V(x) - E = E_{kin} and hence \frac12\hbar^2\frac{k^2}m
Thanks
Time invariant
\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2} = 2\frac m{\hbar^2}(V(x)-E)\psi.
Then, the lecture states that for the case of the potential being not just time but also spatially invariant it can be simplified to
\frac{\partial^2\psi}{\partial x^2} = -k^2\psi
My question is, why this is said to be possible, only if the potential is constant. Given the term V(x) - E we can conclude that V(x) - E = E_{kin} and hence \frac12\hbar^2\frac{k^2}m
Thanks