Spherical Coordinates Question

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the interpretation and derivation of spherical coordinates, particularly focusing on the relationship between the angles and the coordinate transformations in three-dimensional space.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to clarify the legitimacy of their derivation of spherical coordinates, specifically questioning the interpretation of the angle ø in relation to the xy-plane and the hypotenuse of a triangle.
  • Some participants provide feedback on the conventions of spherical coordinates, noting differences in angle definitions and ranges.
  • Others suggest that while the original poster's approach is valid, it deviates from the standard conventions commonly used in spherical coordinates.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different interpretations of spherical coordinates and their derivations. Some guidance has been offered regarding standard conventions, but no consensus has been reached on the original poster's approach.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of varying conventions for defining angles in spherical coordinates, which may affect the interpretation of the original poster's derivation. The discussion also highlights the importance of clarity in defining parameters when transitioning from two-dimensional to three-dimensional coordinate systems.

eyesontheball1
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Homework Statement


I'm feeling a bit ambivalent about my interpretation of spherical coordinates and I'd appreciate it if someone could clarify things for me! In particular, I'd like to know whether or not my derivation of the coordinates is legitimate.


Homework Equations



Considering only the xy-plane, x = rcos(θ), y = rsin(θ) s.t. r ≥0, -π≤θ≤π.

Now, if we introduce the z-axis, so that we're in 3-dimensional space, we can construct a right triangle s.t. the base of the triangle lies in the xy-plane and the right angle of the triangle is formed between the base of the triangle and the side of the triangle pointing upward into the positive z direction normal to the xy-plane. The hypotenuse of the triangle lying in the xy-plane has length r. This hypotenuse is also the base of the second triangle. We choose ø s.t. -π/2 ≤ ø ≤ π/2, and we let r = pcos(ø), so that the length of the base of the second triangle is r = pcos(ø), and we also let the length of the side of the triangle normal to the xy-plane be z = psin(ø). It then follows that the length of the hypotenuse of the second triangle is p. What I'm unsure about is whether or not it's okay to interpret the angle, ø, as being the angle formed between the xy-plane and the hypotenuse of the second triangle, given a fixed point, (x,y), in the xy-plane. Thanks in advance!

The Attempt at a Solution


 
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That's fine. Normally, people set the domain of your ø variable to be [0, π], due to the range of the inverse cosine function, but yours covers the same space.
 
eyesontheball1 said:

Homework Statement


I'm feeling a bit ambivalent about my interpretation of spherical coordinates and I'd appreciate it if someone could clarify things for me! In particular, I'd like to know whether or not my derivation of the coordinates is legitimate.


Homework Equations



Considering only the xy-plane, x = rcos(θ), y = rsin(θ) s.t. r ≥0, -π≤θ≤π.

Now, if we introduce the z-axis, so that we're in 3-dimensional space, we can construct a right triangle s.t. the base of the triangle lies in the xy-plane and the right angle of the triangle is formed between the base of the triangle and the side of the triangle pointing upward into the positive z direction normal to the xy-plane. The hypotenuse of the triangle lying in the xy-plane has length r. This hypotenuse is also the base of the second triangle. We choose ø s.t. -π/2 ≤ ø ≤ π/2, and we let r = pcos(ø), so that the length of the base of the second triangle is r = pcos(ø), and we also let the length of the side of the triangle normal to the xy-plane be z = psin(ø). It then follows that the length of the hypotenuse of the second triangle is p. What I'm unsure about is whether or not it's okay to interpret the angle, ø, as being the angle formed between the xy-plane and the hypotenuse of the second triangle, given a fixed point, (x,y), in the xy-plane. Thanks in advance!

The Attempt at a Solution


The USUAL convention for spherical coordinates is: the angle between ##\vec{r}## and the z-axis is ##\theta \in [0, \pi]##, with ##\theta = 0## being the +z axis. The counterclockwise angle from the +x axis is ##\phi \in [0,2 \pi]##; counterclockwise means that ##\phi = 0## along the +x axis, ##\phi = \pi/2## along the +y axis, etc. Of course, these are just conventions and you are not required by law to follow them, but they are the most common definitions. See, eg., http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spherical_coordinate_system . (However, the http://mathworld.wolfram.com/SphericalCoordinates.html site employs your convention.)

Anyway, in this standard convention the transformation equations are
x = r \sin(\theta) \cos(\phi)\\<br /> y = r \sin(\theta) \sin(\phi)\\<br /> z = r \cos(\theta) \\<br /> 0 \leq \theta \leq \pi, \;\; 0 \leq \phi \leq 2 \pi<br />
Basically, if the +z axis goes through the North Pole and the +x axis passes through Greenwich, England, the angle ##\theta## measures latitude down from the North Pole and ##\phi## measures longitude going East from Greenwich.
 
Last edited:
Thanks, guys! I just prefer my above derivation of the coordinates because the reasoning used to choose the parameters for the second triangle is identical to the reasoning used to choose the polar coordinates corresponding to the first triangle.
 

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