1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data Use the squeeze theorem to prove the sequence converges to 0. (Given the lim 1/n=0 and 1/n^2=0. A) cos n pi / n^2 B) ((-1)^n) ln(n) / n^2 I know you have to show that the sequence "squeezes" between the two given above, but I am having problems doing so, any help would be great. Thanks.