Static friction vs kinetic friction (Very simple question)

[supernova1203]

This isn't part of a homework question or anything, i was just curious

If an object is at rest, static friction is at work, so for an object to move, on a flat surface, force applied must be greater than the static friction force yes?

But this is not true for kinetic friction, where an object can move at a constant velocity, even though net force is 0, because force applied is the exact same as kinetic friction? Yes?

thanks in advance :)

 

[Astronuc]

This isn't part of a homework question or anything, i was just curious

If an object is at rest, static friction is at work, so for an object to move, on a flat surface, force applied must be greater than the static friction force yes?

Yes. In order to get the object at rest to move, the applied force must exceed the static friction force.

But this is not true for kinetic friction, where an object can move at a constant velocity, even though net force is 0, because force applied is the exact same as kinetic friction? Yes?

thanks in advance :)

At constant velocity, there is no acceleration, and thus the net force = 0, and that means the applied force = the frictional force. If the net force > 0, there will be an acceleration, and if net force < 0, there will be a deceleration.

 

[supernova1203]

ahhh ty!