Statistics proof, identically distributed RVs and variance

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vj3336
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Homework Statement


Show that for identically distributed, but not necessarily independent random variables with positive pairwise correlation ρ, the variance of their average is ρσ^2 + (1-ρ)σ^2/B.

ρ - pairwise corellation
σ^2 - variance of each variable
B - number of samples


Homework Equations



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The Attempt at a Solution



I'm totally stuck on this problem, I don't know where to start.
Can you give me some starting hint ?
I know that variance of the average for independent identically distributed random variables is σ^2/B
 
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I think I could, I would start with this :
Var(X+Y) = Var(X) + Var(Y) = E[(X-μx)^2] - E[(Y-μy)^2]

where μx is the mean of RV X, and μy the mean of RV Y
 
right, so when X and Y are correlated
Var(X+Y) = Var(X) + Var(Y) + 2ρ*Sqrt(Var(X))*Sqrt(Var(Y))

where ρ is corelattion coefficient between X and Y
 
The best thing I could do is :
Var(1/2(X+Y))= Var(1/2*X + 1/2*Y)= 1/4σx^2 + 1/4σy^2 + 2*1/4*ρ Sqrt(σx^2)*Sqrt(σy^2)
=1/4σ^2 + 1/4σ^2 +1/2*ρ*σ^2
 
but maybe I can rearrange this to your form ...I'll try it
 
yes, I can do it , so:

1/2σ^2 + 1/2*ρ*σ^2 = 1/2*(2ρσ^2-ρσ^2) + 1/2*σ^2 = ρσ^2 - 1/2*ρσ^2 + 1/2*σ^2
= ρσ^2 + 1/2*(σ^2-ρσ^2) = ρσ^2 + 1/2*(1-ρ)σ ^2

So the next step is to try it with n instead of 2 ?, I'll try that now
 
The general step is then :
Var(1/n(X1+...+X2)) = 1/n*σ^2 + 2/n^2 *(1/2 * (n-1)n ) ρσ^2
= 1/n*σ^2 + (n-1)/n *ρσ^2
= ρσ^2 + 1/n*σ^2 + -1/n*ρσ^2
= ρσ^2 + 1/n*(1-ρ)σ^2
 
Thanks !
Your hints where very helpful pointing me in the right direction.