fliptomato
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I'm a little bit confused about the difference between the spinor and vector representations of SU(N)--I guess I could start with asking how a spinor and a vector differ: is this only a matter of how they transform under Lorentz transformations?
Following up, the covariant derivative for a spinor of SU(2) is (i.e. for a scalar field \phi that transforms as a spinor of SU(2)):
D_\mu \phi = (\partial_\mu - i g A^a_\mu \tau ^a )\phi
While the covariant derivative for the vector representation of a scalar \phi is:
D_\mu \phi = \partial_\mu_a + g \epsilon_{abc} A^a_\mu \phi_c
(these are from Peskin and Schroeder p. 694-5, eq. (20.22) and (20.27) resp.)
My understanding is that this means we have a scalar field \phi that has a nonabelian gauge symmetry in some abstract (internal) SU(2) space.
The spinor covariant derivative seems to make sense from the general definition of the covariant derivative:
D_\mu = \partial_\mu - igA^a_\mu t^a
where t^a is a generator of the gauge group. does this mean that the generator of the vector representation is something like \epsilon_{abc}? Where does this \epsilon_{abc} come from?
Thanks,
Flip
Following up, the covariant derivative for a spinor of SU(2) is (i.e. for a scalar field \phi that transforms as a spinor of SU(2)):
D_\mu \phi = (\partial_\mu - i g A^a_\mu \tau ^a )\phi
While the covariant derivative for the vector representation of a scalar \phi is:
D_\mu \phi = \partial_\mu_a + g \epsilon_{abc} A^a_\mu \phi_c
(these are from Peskin and Schroeder p. 694-5, eq. (20.22) and (20.27) resp.)
My understanding is that this means we have a scalar field \phi that has a nonabelian gauge symmetry in some abstract (internal) SU(2) space.
The spinor covariant derivative seems to make sense from the general definition of the covariant derivative:
D_\mu = \partial_\mu - igA^a_\mu t^a
where t^a is a generator of the gauge group. does this mean that the generator of the vector representation is something like \epsilon_{abc}? Where does this \epsilon_{abc} come from?
Thanks,
Flip