Sum of n*cos(1/n) over (2n+1) - Divergence Explained | Simplified Series

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Question asks to evaluate sum from 1 to infinity of n*cos(1/n) over (2n+1)

--> I am not sure how to do this.

I tried simplifying it to n/(2n+1) since the cos term is approaching 1 as n --> infinity. If i take the limit for that i get 1/2, so I concluded the series diverges.
--> but the bottom term is bigger than the top term, so why wouldn't it converge?

Thank you(it has been a while since I learned this so I am a bit confused).
 
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Why would it converge just because the bottom term is larger than the top? You've already reached the correct conclusion. The limit of the nth term is 1/2. The sum can't possibly converge.
 
I am saying, if i look at n/(2n+1), as n gets higher, the bottom is growing faster, so wouldn't it go to 0?
 
There is nothing wrong with posing theories like "If the denominator of a fraction is growing faster than the numerator then the limit is zero." We are doing mathematics here, so the next step is to test it. Take some sample terms like n=1000. 1000/2001. n=1000000. 1000000/2000001. They don't look like they are going to zero to me. It looks like they are approaching 1/2. So your 'theory' must be wrong. Try it with n/(2n).
 
Prove $$\int\limits_0^{\sqrt2/4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx = \frac{\pi^2}{8}.$$ Let $$I = \int\limits_0^{\sqrt 2 / 4}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-x^2}}\arcsin\sqrt{\frac{(x-1)\left(x-1+x\sqrt{9-16x}\right)}{1-2x}} \, \mathrm dx. \tag{1}$$ The representation integral of ##\arcsin## is $$\arcsin u = \int\limits_{0}^{1} \frac{\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{1-t^2}}, \qquad 0 \leqslant u \leqslant 1.$$ Plugging identity above into ##(1)## with ##u...

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