Understanding Taylor Series and Error Bounds in Calculus

In summary, the problem involves showing that the remainder of a Taylor series for cosine of (1+x) is less than a certain value for a given range of x. Using the formula for Taylor series and estimating the remainder term, it is shown that the difference between the actual value and the approximation is less than the given value.
  • #1
zcd
200
0
I'm doing some review over summer before starting college, and one of the practice exams has a question pertaining to the remainder of a taylor series

Homework Statement


Show that [tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\{\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\}\right|<\frac{1}{15000}[/tex] for [tex]|x|<0.2[/tex]


Homework Equations


The two equations I somewhat remember are
[tex]R_n(x)=\frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{(n+1)}[/tex]
and
[tex]|R_n(x)|\leq{}M_n\frac{r^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}[/tex]
where M (iirc) is the largest value of the nth derivative in the area of convergence?

The Attempt at a Solution


Here's where I'm stuck; my class in high school never fully went over error of taylor approximation because it wasn't part of the curriculum, so we were given the equations without any actual application. To make matters worse, I last took AP calculus BC over a year ago, so this is still very rusty. Can anyone point me in the right direction?
 
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  • #3
zcd said:
I'm doing some review over summer before starting college, and one of the practice exams has a question pertaining to the remainder of a taylor series

Homework Statement


Show that [tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\{\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\}\right|<\frac{1}{15000}[/tex] for [tex]|x|<0.2[/tex]


Homework Equations


The two equations I somewhat remember are
[tex]R_n(x)=\frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)}{(n+1)!}(x-a)^{(n+1)}[/tex]
and
[tex]|R_n(x)|\leq{}M_n\frac{r^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}[/tex]
where M (iirc) is the largest value of the nth derivative in the area of convergence?

The Attempt at a Solution


Here's where I'm stuck; my class in high school never fully went over error of taylor approximation because it wasn't part of the curriculum, so we were given the equations without any actual application. To make matters worse, I last took AP calculus BC over a year ago, so this is still very rusty. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

If you expand cos(1+x) in a Taylor series about x = 0 up through the term containing x3 you will have:

cos(1+x) = (terms from constant through x3) + R3

where R3 is the error term if you stop with x3. So you will have

|cos(1+x) - (terms from constant through x3)| = |R3|, where

[tex]
R_3(x)=\frac{f^{(4)}(c)}{(4)!}(x-0)^{(4)}
[/tex]

If you write out the series you will see it is exactly what is given. All you have to do is estimate the remainder. It tells you that |x| ≤ .2 and you will find it easy to overestimate f(4)(x). Just be brave and work it out. Don't use any decimals, stick with fractions.
 
  • #4
Still getting my feet wet again so correct me if I'm wrong :P

[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\{\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\}\right|=\left|\cos{(1)}((1-\frac{x^2}{2}+R_3(x))-(1-\frac{x^2}{2}))-\sin{(1)}((x-\frac{x^3}{3!}+R_3(x))-(x-\frac{x^3}{3!}))\right|[/tex]
[tex]=\left|\cos{(1)}R_3(x)-\sin{(1)}R_3(x)\right|[/tex]

since [tex]|R_n(x)|\leq{}M_n\frac{r^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}[/tex] and Mn=1 for sin and cos, [tex]|R_3(x)|\leq{}\frac{(\frac{1}{5})^4}{4!}=\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

plugging it all back in,
[tex]\left|\cos{(1)}\frac{1}{15000}-\sin{(1)}\frac{1}{15000}\right|<\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

is that right?
 
  • #5
zcd said:
Still getting my feet wet again so correct me if I'm wrong :P

[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\{\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\}\right|=\left|\cos{(1)}((1-\frac{x^2}{2}+R_3(x))-(1-\frac{x^2}{2}))-\sin{(1)}((x-\frac{x^3}{3!}+R_3(x))-(x-\frac{x^3}{3!}))\right|[/tex]
[tex]=\left|\cos{(1)}R_3(x)-\sin{(1)}R_3(x)\right|[/tex]

since [tex]|R_n(x)|\leq{}M_n\frac{r^{n+1}}{(n+1)!}[/tex] and Mn=1 for sin and cos, [tex]|R_3(x)|\leq{}\frac{(\frac{1}{5})^4}{4!}=\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

plugging it all back in,
[tex]\left|\cos{(1)}\frac{1}{15000}-\sin{(1)}\frac{1}{15000}\right|<\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

is that right?

The only thing right is your estimate for R3. The rest is just jumbled confusion.

Just write the Taylor series for cos(1+x) using the terms up through x3 like I suggested. You know, calculate f(0), f'(0), f''(0) etc. and write the series. This doesn't involve the remainder. Rearrange it to get the expression you are given. Write it as suggested in my previous post.
 
  • #6
I think I get it

[tex]\cos{(1+x)}=\cos{(1)}-x\sin{(1)}-\frac{x^2}{2}\cos{(1)}+\frac{x^3}{3!}\sin{(1)}+...[/tex]
[tex]\cos{(1+x)}=\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})+R_3(x)[/tex]
[tex]\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]=R_3(x)[/tex]
[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]\right|=\left|R_3(x)\right|[/tex]
[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]\right|\leq\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

how does the =< turn into <?
 
  • #7
zcd said:
I think I get it

[tex]\cos{(1+x)}=\cos{(1)}-x\sin{(1)}-\frac{x^2}{2}\cos{(1)}+\frac{x^3}{3!}\sin{(1)}+...[/tex]
[tex]\cos{(1+x)}=\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})+R_3(x)[/tex]
[tex]\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]=R_3(x)[/tex]
[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]\right|=\left|R_3(x)\right|[/tex]
[tex]\left|\cos{(1+x)}-\left[\cos{(1)}(1-\frac{x^2}{2})-\sin{(1)}(x-\frac{x^3}{3!})\right]\right|\leq\frac{1}{15000}[/tex]

how does the =< turn into <?

Good job. Look at the limits on x. Are you given strict inequality in your estimate?
 
  • #8
Ahh I see. Thanks for all the help :)
 

1. What is a Taylor Series?

A Taylor Series is a mathematical representation of a function as an infinite sum of terms. It is used to approximate a function at a given point by using the function's derivatives at that point.

2. How is a Taylor Series used to find the error in approximation?

The error in approximation is determined by the remainder term in the Taylor Series. This term represents the difference between the actual function value and the value calculated using the Taylor Series. The smaller the remainder term, the more accurate the approximation.

3. Can a Taylor Series be used for any function?

No, a Taylor Series can only be used for functions that are infinitely differentiable. This means that all of the function's derivatives exist at the point of approximation.

4. How do you determine the number of terms needed in a Taylor Series to achieve a desired level of accuracy?

The number of terms needed depends on the desired level of accuracy and the function being approximated. Generally, the more terms included in the Taylor Series, the more accurate the approximation will be. However, using too many terms can also lead to numerical instability.

5. Are there any limitations to using a Taylor Series for approximation?

Yes, using a Taylor Series for approximation can be limited by the size of the interval of approximation and the complexity of the function. In some cases, the Taylor Series may converge very slowly or not at all, making it a poor approximation method.

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