Solve Taylor Series & Groups Homework: Show T(a) = exp(iap_x)

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The discussion centers on demonstrating that the translation operator T(a) can be expressed as T(a) = exp(iap_x), where p_x is the linear momentum operator. Participants express confusion about expanding the wave function ψ(x+a) as a Taylor series and question the need for a specific expansion point. The correct approach involves expanding around x, yielding a series that includes terms like aψ'(x) and a²ψ''(x)/2!. Clarification is provided on how to interpret the operator exponentiation, emphasizing that the exponential of an operator is defined through its Taylor series. The conversation highlights the challenges of applying quantum mechanical concepts in a non-dedicated quantum dynamics class.
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Homework Statement



A translation operator T(a) coverts ψ(x) to ψ(x+a),

T(a)ψ(x) = ψ(x+a)

In terms of the (quantum mechanical) linear momentum operator p_x = -id/dx, show that T(a) = exp(iap_x), that is, p_x is the generator of translations. Hint. Expand ψ(x+a) as a Taylor series.

Homework Equations



Groups?

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm lost at the hint. To expand ψ(x+a) as a Taylor series, don't I need a point around which to expand it?
 
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limddavid said:

Homework Statement



A translation operator T(a) coverts ψ(x) to ψ(x+a),

T(a)ψ(x) = ψ(x+a)

In terms of the (quantum mechanical) linear momentum operator p_x = -id/dx, show that T(a) = exp(iap_x), that is, p_x is the generator of translations. Hint. Expand ψ(x+a) as a Taylor series.

Homework Equations



Groups?

The Attempt at a Solution



I'm lost at the hint. To expand ψ(x+a) as a Taylor series, don't I need a point around which to expand it?

Yes- a.
 
Ok. so would the taylor series be:

ψ(a+a)+ψ'(a+a)(x-a)+ψ''(a+a)*(x-a)^2/2!+... ? and maybe disregard the higher order terms O(3)? Or would it be

ψ(a)+ψ'(a)*(x)+ψ''(a)*(x)^2/2!+... ? Either way, I'm not sure how I would prove that T(a) is the given exponential function..
 
You want to expand about x=x, i.e., ψ(x+a) = ψ(x)+...
 
ok.. so i expanded that, and got ψ(x)+aψ'(x)+a^2*ψ''(x)/2!+ ...

But the LHS gives me:

e^(i*a*px)[ψ(x)]=e^(a*dψ/dx)=e^(-iak*ψ(x)), which is clearly not the left hand side. Am I interpreting the operator px wrong? This class is not a quantum dynamics class, so I'm having difficulty figuring out what I'm missing.
 
You can't pull ψ(x) into the exponent like that because ψ(x) isn't an eigenfunction of the operator \hat{p}_x.

It's not be exactly obvious what the expression e^{ia\hat{p}_x} means. How do you exponentiate an operator? The answer is that it's defined by the Taylor series for ex:
e^{ia\hat{p}_x} \equiv 1+ia\hat{p}_x+\frac{(ia\hat{p}_x)^2}{2!}+\cdotsWhat do you get when you apply the righthand side to ψ(x)?
 
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