Temperature dependence of relaxation time T1 vs T2

qwerasadf
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Hi,
when we assume a obejct with increasing dynamics with increasing temperature, the longitudinal relaxation time T1 should decrease. Since we have, let's say at a frequency 100 MHz , more fluctuations of B0.

Ok, then the transversal relaxation time T2 must increase with increasing temperature, right? Because T2 depends on the spectral density at j(0) (zero frequency). so when there is a increasing dynamic, the zero-frequency-motion-ometer (=T2) must decrease. Is it right?

I know there is also a j(100MHz) contribution within T2, but let's assume that's negligible.

Thanks a lot, sorry for bad english!
 
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Could you please give the context of your question?
 
Hi, DrClaude,

Its about the investigation of Relaxor ferroelectrics with NMR relaxation time.
 
qwerasadf said:
so when there is a increasing dynamic, the zero-frequency-motion-ometer (=T2) must decrease.
I don't understand the argument here.
 
upload_2015-11-5_22-52-56.png

In this picture we can see the spectral density with different frequencies. If there are are high dynamics => shorter correlation time => frequency distribution becomes broader. the dashed lines is referred to the T1 relaxation time. T2 is at 0Hz. Thus, increasing dynamics lead to low T2, right?
 
The energy density for every frequency increases with temperature.
 
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