Temperature dependence of relaxation time T1 vs T2

qwerasadf
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
Hi,
when we assume a obejct with increasing dynamics with increasing temperature, the longitudinal relaxation time T1 should decrease. Since we have, let's say at a frequency 100 MHz , more fluctuations of B0.

Ok, then the transversal relaxation time T2 must increase with increasing temperature, right? Because T2 depends on the spectral density at j(0) (zero frequency). so when there is a increasing dynamic, the zero-frequency-motion-ometer (=T2) must decrease. Is it right?

I know there is also a j(100MHz) contribution within T2, but let's assume that's negligible.

Thanks a lot, sorry for bad english!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Could you please give the context of your question?
 
Hi, DrClaude,

Its about the investigation of Relaxor ferroelectrics with NMR relaxation time.
 
qwerasadf said:
so when there is a increasing dynamic, the zero-frequency-motion-ometer (=T2) must decrease.
I don't understand the argument here.
 
upload_2015-11-5_22-52-56.png

In this picture we can see the spectral density with different frequencies. If there are are high dynamics => shorter correlation time => frequency distribution becomes broader. the dashed lines is referred to the T1 relaxation time. T2 is at 0Hz. Thus, increasing dynamics lead to low T2, right?
 
The energy density for every frequency increases with temperature.
 
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
Back
Top