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I am reading the following paper

http://arxiv.org/abs/hep-th/9705122

In the page 4 he says that

[itex]\tilde{W}_{\mu\nu}=0\Rightarrow V_{\mu}=\partial_{\mu}\lambda[/itex]

Where [itex]\tilde{W}^{\mu\nu}\equiv\frac{1}{2}\epsilon^{\mu \nu\rho\sigma}W_{\rho\sigma}[/itex] and [itex]W_{\mu\nu}\equiv\partial_{[\mu}V_{\nu]} [/itex] and [itex] \epsilon [/itex] is antisymmetric Levi-Civita tensor.

The above expression is a general argument and it is not related to the paper. I can not understand how can we drive [itex]V_{\mu}=\partial_{\mu}\lambda[/itex] from [itex]\tilde{W}_{\mu\nu}=0 [/itex]

Would someone please explain it for me

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# Tensorial Calculation and antisymmetric tensors

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