The distribution of ratio of two uniform variables

gimmytang
Messages
20
Reaction score
0
Hello,
Let X ~ U(0,1), Y ~U(0,1), and independent from each other. To calculate the density of U=Y/X, let V=X, then:
f_{U,V}(u,v)=f_{X,Y}(v,uv)|v| by change of variables.
Then:
f_{U}(u)=\int_{0}^{1}{f_{X,Y}(v,uv)|v|dv}=\int_{0}^{1}{vdv}={1\over 2}, 0<u<\infty, which is not integrated to 1.
Where I am wrong?
gim :cry:
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
you only integrated with respect to fu(u). Now you have to integrate with respect to fv(v). Or you could have just used a double integral to start with...
 
Actually the marginal distribution of U, namely the distribution of the ratio of two uniform variables, is the only thing that I am interested. To be more clear:
f_{U}(u)={\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f_{U,V}(u,v)dv}={\int_{0}^{1}f_{X,Y}(u,uv)|v|dv}={\int_{0}^{1}vdv}=1/2
Now the question is my result 1/2 is not a reasonable density since it's not integrated to 1.
gim :bugeye:
 
Question says Let X and Y be independent random variables with join cumulative distribution function (CDF) F subscript X,Y of (x,y)= P (X</= x, Y</=y). Show that the CDF Fz(z) of the random variable Z=min (X,Y) can be computed via
Fz(z)= Fx(z) + Fy(z) - Fx(z) . Fy(z) = 1 - (1 - Fx (z)) . (1- Fy (z))

Please reply to this asap. I need to submit this answer by Friday. Thanks!
 
electroissues said:
Question says Let X and Y be independent random variables with join cumulative distribution function (CDF) F subscript X,Y of (x,y)= P (X</= x, Y</=y). Show that the CDF Fz(z) of the random variable Z=min (X,Y) can be computed via
Fz(z)= Fx(z) + Fy(z) - Fx(z) . Fy(z) = 1 - (1 - Fx (z)) . (1- Fy (z))

Please reply to this asap. I need to submit this answer by Friday. Thanks!
Don't jump into the thread of another. What have you done so far?
 
Well, I'm new here and had problems starting a new thread.

I looked at PDF of an exponential function which is (1 - Fx (x)) and also since its also given its independent, we know it can be split into Fx (x) . Fy (y) but I can't put these things together.
 
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Thread 'Detail of Diagonalization Lemma'
The following is more or less taken from page 6 of C. Smorynski's "Self-Reference and Modal Logic". (Springer, 1985) (I couldn't get raised brackets to indicate codification (Gödel numbering), so I use a box. The overline is assigning a name. The detail I would like clarification on is in the second step in the last line, where we have an m-overlined, and we substitute the expression for m. Are we saying that the name of a coded term is the same as the coded term? Thanks in advance.
Back
Top