mhill
- 180
- 1
What is the idea behind renormalization group ??
i believe you begin with an action [tex]S[\phi] =\int d^{4}x L(\phi , \partial _{\mu} \phi )[/tex]
then you expand the fields into its Fourier components upto a propagator..
[tex]\phi (x) =C \int_{ \Lambda}d^{4}x e^{i \vec p \vec x} + c.c[/tex]
but then i do not more, i know that every quantity measured by the QFT theory will have the form:
[tex]m(\Lambda) = alog(\Lambda) + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_{n} \Lambda ^{n}[/tex]
and that from the definition of propagator we should ask for 'conformal invariance' but i do not know how this theory helps to find finite (regularized) value of the quantities.
the idea i am looking for, it is to know if using renormalization group we could find a relation between the bare quantities [tex]m^{(0)}[/tex] and the renormalized ones [tex]m^{(R)}[/tex] via some differential or integral equation.
another mor informal question, if we found a method to obtain finite values for integrals.
[tex]\int_{0}^{T}dx x^{n}[/tex] as T-->oo and for every positive 'n'
would the problem of renormalization be solved ??
i believe you begin with an action [tex]S[\phi] =\int d^{4}x L(\phi , \partial _{\mu} \phi )[/tex]
then you expand the fields into its Fourier components upto a propagator..
[tex]\phi (x) =C \int_{ \Lambda}d^{4}x e^{i \vec p \vec x} + c.c[/tex]
but then i do not more, i know that every quantity measured by the QFT theory will have the form:
[tex]m(\Lambda) = alog(\Lambda) + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} b_{n} \Lambda ^{n}[/tex]
and that from the definition of propagator we should ask for 'conformal invariance' but i do not know how this theory helps to find finite (regularized) value of the quantities.
the idea i am looking for, it is to know if using renormalization group we could find a relation between the bare quantities [tex]m^{(0)}[/tex] and the renormalized ones [tex]m^{(R)}[/tex] via some differential or integral equation.
another mor informal question, if we found a method to obtain finite values for integrals.
[tex]\int_{0}^{T}dx x^{n}[/tex] as T-->oo and for every positive 'n'
would the problem of renormalization be solved ??
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