Theorems that can't be proved by induction

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Fredrik
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Induction
Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the existence of theorems that can be stated in the form of universal quantification over positive integers but cannot be proved using mathematical induction. Participants explore examples, particularly referencing sequences and the Goodstein theorem, while seeking clarification on the nature of such statements and the implications of induction failure.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants recall an example involving sequences defined for positive integers that grow rapidly but eventually become zero, questioning the role of induction in proving such claims.
  • There is uncertainty regarding whether the sequences are defined for positive integers or positive real numbers, with some participants suggesting the latter.
  • One participant proposes that the failure of induction might relate to the uncountability of the set involved.
  • Another participant raises the question of how one can demonstrate that a proposition cannot be proved by induction.
  • The Ackermann function is mentioned as a potential example related to the sequences discussed.
  • Several participants converge on the Goodstein theorem as a specific example that cannot be proved using first-order Peano axioms but can be proved with transfinite numbers or second-order Peano axioms.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the Goodstein theorem is a relevant example of a statement that cannot be proved by induction. However, there is still some uncertainty regarding the specifics of the sequences and the nature of induction failure in other contexts.

Contextual Notes

Participants express limitations in their understanding of how to prove the impossibility of induction for certain propositions, indicating that further exploration is needed.

Fredrik
Staff Emeritus
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
Insights Author
Gold Member
Messages
10,876
Reaction score
423
I know that I've seen an example of a statement of the form ##\forall n~P(n)## (where the scope of the "for all" is the set of positive integers) that can be proved, but can't be proved by induction. I thought I had seen it in one of Roger Penrose's books, but I have looked for it and wasn't able to find it. Maybe I saw it on some web page. I'm pretty sure that Penrose was involved somehow. The example defines a sequence for each positive integer. Each of the sequences starts out growing absurdly fast, and at an increasing rate, and it's clear that each sequence will continue to grow for a long time. But, if I remember correctly, the claim that you can't prove by induction, is that in each sequence, all but a finite number of terms are zero.

Does this sound familiar to anyone? I would like to look at that example again. If you know any other fun examples of when induction fails, I'd be interested in them as well.
 
Last edited:
  • Like
Likes   Reactions: S.G. Janssens
Mathematics news on Phys.org
Fredrik said:
The example defines a sequence for each positive real number. Each of the sequences starts out growing absurdly fast, and at an increasing rate, and it's clear that each sequence will continue to grow for a long time. But, if I remember correctly, the claim that you can't prove by induction, is that in each sequence, all but a finite number of terms are zero.

Interesting result. I'm afraid I don't know the example, but I have some questions. What is the role of the positive real number? Do you mean that for every real number ##a > 0## he defines a sequence ##(x_n)_{n \in \mathbb{N}}## such that ##x_1 = a##, the sequence has the described growth behavior, but eventually it becomes identically zero?

In that case, does the failure of induction have to do with the fact that ##(0,\infty) \times \mathbb{N}## is uncountable?

EDIT: Does it maybe also have to do with the fact that the natural number ##N(a)## such that ##x_n = 0## for all ##n \ge N(a)## itself grows beyond any bounds as a function of ##a##?
 
Sorry, I meant positive integer. I will edit my post. Thanks for spotting the mistake. The example involves a sequence of sequences.
 
Fredrik said:
Sorry, I meant positive integer. I will edit my post. Thanks for spotting the mistake. The example involves a sequence of sequences.
Ah ok, clear now.

EDIT: Incidentally, I would be curious to know how one proves that one cannot prove a certain proposition with induction. (Sorry for editing my post again, I think slowly.)
 
Krylov said:
EDIT: Incidentally, I would be curious to know how one proves that one cannot prove a certain proposition with induction. (Sorry for editing my post again, I think slowly.)
I think that this wasn't explained in that text. I'd be interested in that too. Maybe we can figure it out when we see the example.
 
Fredrik said:
Each of the sequences starts out growing absurdly fast, and at an increasing rate, and it's clear that each sequence will continue to grow for a long time.
Might it have been the Ackermann function (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ackermann_function)?
 
Svein said:
Might it have been the Ackermann function (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ackermann_function)?
Yes, that might be it. Some of the expressions in the "table of values", like ##2^{2^{2^2}}-3##, look very familiar. So maybe the ##n##th sequence in the text I read was either ##(A(n,m))_{m=1}^\infty## or ##(A(m,n))_{m=1}^\infty##. I will take a closer look later.
 
@Fredrik I think it was the Goodstein theorem.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goodstein's_theorem
I am pretty convinced that Penrose indeed discussed the Goodstein theorem.

The theorem can't be proved with first order Peano axioms, including the first order induction. It can be proved with transfinite numbers, even though the theorem is a statement about finite numbers. It also can be proved with second order Peano axioms (with second order induction), but this is less known and usually ignored because most logicians don't like second order logic.
 
Last edited:
Demystifier said:
@Fredrik I think it was the Goodstein theorem.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goodstein's_theorem
I am pretty convinced that Penrose indeed discussed the Goodstein theorem.
That's definitely it. The "hereditary base n notation", the replacement n→n+1 and and the "-1" part of the construction all look familiar. Thanks.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
Replies
8
Views
5K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
4K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
3K