JesseM
Science Advisor
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Huh? In the first sentence are you talking about absolute motion, rather than motion relative to some frame? If not I don't understand what the difference between motion relative to some frame and motion "compared to a separate object" is supposed to be. If the first sentence is talking about absolute motion, I've already told you before that no concepts in relativity have anything to do with absolute motion, so of course that applies to length contraction as well. Even if there was such a thing as absolute motion/absolute rest, it would be utterly irrelevant to relativistic length contraction: an object at rest in the absolute sense would appear shorter in the frame of an observer in absolute motion, and an object in absolute motion would appear shorter in the frame of an observer at absolute rest, all that matters is their relative velocity. (If you believe in absolute space, there would of course be an absolute truth about whose meter-stick was longer and whose was shorter, but the observer with the absolutely shorter meter-stick would still measure the other meter-stick to be shorter than his own, because he's making "simultaneous" measurements of either end with clocks that are out-of-sync in an absolute sense. The diagrams in this thread can be used to illustrate this, just imagine that one frame's perspective is the true "absolute" frame, you can see nevertheless that their measurements of one another are totally symmetrical...I can elaborate on this if you wish.)Physicist1231 said:You are pointing out that you only need to use Lengh contraction when you "know" an object is in motion. What if you don't "know" it is in motion but is compared to a separate (also unknown) object.
Also, if you ever use the words "moving" to refer to absolute motion, please make this clear by specifically using a phrase involving "absolute" like "absolute motion" or "moving in an absolute sense", otherwise your posts get very confusing.
I don't know what you mean by "actually". In a frame where the object is moving, the coordinate distance between ends of the object at a particular moment in coordinate time is shorter than the coordinate distance between ends in the frame where the object is at rest. There is no notion of the "actual" length of any object independent of how it's described in any given coordinate system.Physicist1231 said:The fact that an object would actually change size/shape dependent of the "knowledge" of motion is kinda silly.
In relativity each frame defines length in terms of simultaneous measurements of either end of the object, but different frames define simultaneity differently, so you can partially understand the different lengths in different frames by realizing that different frames are taking different 3D "cross sections" of the same 4D world-tube. If you think of a 2D spacetime diagram where we just consider one space dimension, it's easier to visualize, see the diagram on http://www.anselm.edu/homepage/dbanach/st.htm:
Here the two long slanted lines represent the worldlines of the front and back of the rod. A is an event at the back end of the rod, and B and C are two events at the front end of the rod. In the frame of the observer X whose coordinates are being represented in this diagram, A and B are simultaneous (they are at the same vertical height in the diagram, and the vertical axis represents time), so the "length" of the rod in this frame is the distance from A to B. But in the rod's rest frame, A and B are not simultaneous, rather A is simultaneous with C, so the "length" in the rest frame is the distance from A to C. You can see that the distance AB is shorter than the distance AC, so the rod is contracted in the observer's frame (there is a subtlety in that if we actually drew "ticks" of some fixed distance like 1 meter on lines of constant time in both frames, the distance between ticks wouldn't appear the same in this diagram, but still the diagram gives a qualitative sense of why the length of the rod is different in the two frames).
In ordinary 3D Euclidean geometry, we could similarly create different Cartesian coordinate systems and use them to find cross-sections of constant z-coordinate of some solid object like a cylinder (intersections of the cylinder with the xy plane of each coordinate system). If two different coordinate systems had their axes at different angles, then each one's xy plane would intersect the cylinder at different angles, and thus the concept "area of a 2D cross-section of constant z-coordinate" for the cylinder would be different in the two coordinate systems. Do you think there must be an "actual" value for "area of a 2D cross-section of constant z-coordinate" that's independent of what coordinate system we choose? Probably not. So, I don't see why you should have a problem with the analogous notion that there is no "actual" value for "distance between ends of an object at a single t-coordinate", independent of what frame's definition of simultaneity we choose.
Not sure what you mean, length contraction always applies to the coordinate distance between ends of an object moving inertially, just like time dilation always applies to the coordinate time between ticks of a clock moving inertially. If we have an object moving at velocity v in our frame, and we want to know the distance D an object travels in a time T in terms of our frame's coordinates, then no length contraction is figured into D and no time dilation is figured into T, the answer is just D=v*T. This is really true by definition, since we define velocity in a given frame by [change in position]/[change in time] in terms of the coordinates of that frame, no distances and times from other frames (or other rulers and clocks not at rest in that frame) are relevant to the definition of velocity.Physicist1231 said:It does not seem right if you can pick and chose when to use something like Lenth contraction when you "always" take into account Time contraction/expantion (Dilation).
JesseM said:Are you asking what the distances would be in B's frame if you assume each one comes to rest relative to B's frame when the light hits them (and likewise for C), or do you still want to assume they all come to rest relative to A's frame, but now you want to know the final distances between them in the inertial frame where B was at rest prior to changing velocities and coming to rest in A's frame? Or something else?
No, because there is an objective difference between case #1 where B and C accelerate to come to rest relative to A while A continues to move inertially, and case #2 where A and C accelerate to come to rest relative to B while B continues to move inertially, and case #3 where A and B accelerate to come to rest relative to C while C continues to move inertially. Not all types of motion are "relative" in relativity, if the relative velocity between two objects changes there is an objective truth about which one accelerated (the one that accelerated will feel G-forces which can be measured with an accelerometer), this is crucial to defining the difference between "inertial frames" (where the usual equations of SR, like the time dilation equation, are intended to apply) and "non-inertial frames" (where these equations don't apply, and light generally doesn't even have a constant coordinate speed of c). The objective difference between inertial and accelerated motion is also crucial to understanding the twin paradox, since otherwise you could say that each twin viewed themselves at rest the whole time while the other moved away and back, and then you'd (falsely) conclude that each twin should predict the other will be younger when they reunite.Physicist1231 said:It has already been noted and assumed that an object "at rest" compared to another object is at rest. So if C is at rest to A and B is atrest to A then C is at rest to B and B is at rest to C. At rest = 0 relative motion to all parties involved (in this instance only 4 points (if you include the light source [also "at rest']).
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