Time-independent perturbation theory

ehrenfest
Messages
2,001
Reaction score
1

Homework Statement


In each of my QM books, they always say something like "we can write the perturbed energies and wavefunctions as"

E_n = E_n^{(0)} + \lambda E_n^{(1)} + \lambda^2 E_n^{(2)} + \cdots

|n\rangle = |n^{(0)}\rangle + \lambda |n^{(1)}\rangle + \lambda^2 |n^{(2)}\rangle + \cdots

without any justification. This is really not obvious to me and although it seems reasonable, it do not see why the perturbed energies and wavefunctions might not be something completely different like

E_n = E_n^{(0)} + \lambda E_n^{(1)} + \lambda^2 \log \left(E_n^{(2)}\right)^{-1}\sin E_n^{(2)} + \cdots

|n\rangle = |n^{(0)}\rangle + \lambda |n^{(1)}\rangle + \lambda^2 |n^{(2)}\rangle + \cdots

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution

 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Expanding the energies and wave functions as a function of the perturbation parameter is an iterative manner which is well behaved. The function you wrote for the energy has poles and in multivalued.
 
ehrenfest said:

Homework Statement


In each of my QM books, they always say something like "we can write the perturbed energies and wavefunctions as"

E_n = E_n^{(0)} + \lambda E_n^{(1)} + \lambda^2 E_n^{(2)} + \cdots

|n\rangle = |n^{(0)}\rangle + \lambda |n^{(1)}\rangle + \lambda^2 |n^{(2)}\rangle + \cdots

without any justification. This is really not obvious to me and although it seems reasonable, it do not see why the perturbed energies and wavefunctions might not be something completely different like

E_n = E_n^{(0)} + \lambda E_n^{(1)} + \lambda^2 \log \left(E_n^{(2)}\right)^{-1}\sin E_n^{(2)} + \cdots

|n\rangle = |n^{(0)}\rangle + \lambda |n^{(1)}\rangle + \lambda^2 |n^{(2)}\rangle + \cdots

Homework Equations


You are right that it's an assumption that is being made. The assumption is that the perturbation Hamiltonian is a small perturbation, which means that as lambda goes to zero, the energies and wavefunctions smoothly approach the unperturbed results. This assumption does fail in some cases (for example, trying to treat the Couloumb potential in Hydrogen as a perturbation would fail completely because the energy expansion would diverge in lambda which would signal the fact that the Coulomb potential has to be included to all orders so it cannot really be treated as a perturbation)
 
Hello everyone, I’m considering a point charge q that oscillates harmonically about the origin along the z-axis, e.g. $$z_{q}(t)= A\sin(wt)$$ In a strongly simplified / quasi-instantaneous approximation I ignore retardation and take the electric field at the position ##r=(x,y,z)## simply to be the “Coulomb field at the charge’s instantaneous position”: $$E(r,t)=\frac{q}{4\pi\varepsilon_{0}}\frac{r-r_{q}(t)}{||r-r_{q}(t)||^{3}}$$ with $$r_{q}(t)=(0,0,z_{q}(t))$$ (I’m aware this isn’t...
Hi, I had an exam and I completely messed up a problem. Especially one part which was necessary for the rest of the problem. Basically, I have a wormhole metric: $$(ds)^2 = -(dt)^2 + (dr)^2 + (r^2 + b^2)( (d\theta)^2 + sin^2 \theta (d\phi)^2 )$$ Where ##b=1## with an orbit only in the equatorial plane. We also know from the question that the orbit must satisfy this relationship: $$\varepsilon = \frac{1}{2} (\frac{dr}{d\tau})^2 + V_{eff}(r)$$ Ultimately, I was tasked to find the initial...
Back
Top