Two objects, one accelerating downwards onto another

  • Thread starter Thread starter Illuminist14
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Accelerating
AI Thread Summary
An object accelerating downwards exerts less force on the surface below compared to when it is stationary, due to Newton's third law. The lower object experiences a reduced retarding force from the descending object, which affects the overall dynamics. If the retarding force were to increase, the downward acceleration of the falling object would decrease, potentially leading to a complete stop if sustained long enough. The discussion highlights the complexity of force interactions in accelerating systems. Clarification on the specifics of force calculations in these scenarios is sought.
Illuminist14
Messages
3
Reaction score
0
The object accelerating downward exerts less force on the part below than if it were being held in place, But this is a reflexive situation: the lower section exerts less retarding force on the descending object - Newton's 3rd law. If the retarding force were greater, the object would have less downward acceleration and, if the force were great enough for long enough time, there could be arrest.

I wanted to know if I had this right? I think it is correct from what I have tried to research.

Any input would be appreciated, thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
BUMP please...anyone?
 
There isn't enough information to answer your question. What the force would be depends upon how fast the dropped object takes to stop.
 
Illuminist14 said:
The object accelerating downward exerts less force on the part below than if it were being held in place, But this is a reflexive situation: the lower section exerts less retarding force on the descending object - Newton's 3rd law. If the retarding force were greater, the object would have less downward acceleration and, if the force were great enough for long enough time, there could be arrest.

I wanted to know if I had this right? I think it is correct from what I have tried to research.

Any input would be appreciated, thanks

Your previous thread about this was locked. Do not re-post a locked thread.

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=569058

.
 
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top