alejandrito29 said:
ok, but ##<\Delta E^2>= <E^2>-<E>^2= (<p^2>/(2m) + 0.5 m \omega^2 <x^2> )^2- ( <p>^2/(2m)+ 0.5 m \omega^2 <x>^2 ) ^2##
I think you are still very confused.
##\langle (\Delta E)^2\rangle## reads: "expectation of the variance of E", and you put it equal to the variance, which is an odd thing to say ... but I think you meant to write:
##(\Delta E)^2 = \langle E^2\rangle-\langle E\rangle^2## would be the definition of variance.
For an energy eigenstate ##\langle H\rangle = E_n##
You seem to want to work on the ground state:
##\cdots =E_0^2-0^2=E_0 ^2 \to \Delta E = E_0##
then, my aswer should be ##\Delta E= \hbar \omega /2##, and not ##\Delta E = \hbar f/2##
Who says that ##\Delta E = \hbar f/2## is correct?
Where are you getting these ideas from?
Checking:
For the ground state:
##(\Delta E)^2 = \langle E^2\rangle-\langle E\rangle^2 = \langle E^2\rangle-\langle E\rangle^2 = E_0^2-E_0^2=0\implies \Delta E = 0##
... which means that the energy eigenstates of the harmonic oscillator are infinitely thin
... the energy of the lowest eigenstate is exactly ##E_0## and so on.
(I think you missed out a term in your subtraction.)
Since ##\Delta t \propto 1/\Delta E##, this means that the lifetime of the state is infinitely uncertain. i.e. the state lasts forever.
It may be easier of you write the relations out as: $$\sigma_x\sigma_p\geq \frac{\hbar}{2},\; \sigma_E\sigma_t\geq \frac{\hbar}{2}$$
Or it may be that you are referring to something else - I can't really tell.
Please tell us where these ideas are coming from.
Meantime, the statistics of the harmonic oscillator are detailed in:
http://academic.reed.edu/physics/courses/P342.S10/Physics342/page1/files/Lecture.9.pdf