Uncertainty principle in classical mechanics boundary

[omri3012]

Hallo,

Why does dp*dx>>h represents classical mechanics state?

Thanks,
Omri

 

[xepma]

You could interpret it as taking the limit of the Planck constant h\downarrow 0. Since quantum mechanical effects are typically of order O(h), this limit, in some sense, puts these 'quantum corrections' to zero. This way you end up in a regime which is effectively described by classical mechanics. The corresponding physical states are classical.

 

[omri3012]

Thanks,

i misunderstood you, if quantum mechanical effects are of order O(h) how does dp*dx>>h represents classical mechanics state?