Understanding Cutoff Frequency & Time Domain: Help Needed

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on understanding the relationship between cutoff frequency and output gain in an RC filter. A user built a single pole RC filter with a cutoff frequency of 1 kHz and observed an output voltage lower than expected from a square wave input. Participants explained that the output should resemble a sine wave due to the filter's attenuation of higher harmonics, with the fundamental frequency being reduced to about 9V. The mathematical basis for the -3 dB gain at the cutoff frequency was discussed, emphasizing the significance of Fourier series in analyzing the output. Overall, the conversation highlights the complexities of signal processing through filters and the importance of understanding underlying principles.
hemant03
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Hi,
I am trying to understand the impact of cut off frequency on the gain and trying to relate it in time domain but unable to do so.
For e.g., I have built a single pole RC filter wherein R and C values are chosen to match the cut off frequency of 1K (R = 10KΩ/C = 16nF). The input is a square wave 10V @ 1Khz. There should be loss of 3db at the output but I am unable to validate it.
Please help.

Thanks,
- Hemant
 
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Do you observe an output voltage higher or lower than what you predicted?
 
The output is lower than the input as expected.
Input = 0-10V square wave @ 1KHz
Output = Hi-9.5V; Lo-0.4 @ 1Khz not a square wave though.

My expectation was to see the output amplitude being around 7 V but that's not the case.
Am I looking at it in the right way?

Thanks,
 
The harmonics of your 10V square wave have amplitudes of 10*4/(nπ).
Your 1KHz fundamental (n=1) has an amplitude of 12.7V. The filter will attenuate it to 9V.
 
Are you familiar with Fourier series?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_series

Basically, your 1kHz square wave is formed by a combination of sine waves of frequency n*1000. 1kHz is your fundamental frequency, and the other wine waves that make the square wave are integer multiples of the fundamental frequency.

What does that mean? In a square wave, the fundamental frequency has a higher amplitude than the resulting square wave (see the first picture in the wikipedia link I gave you). Since you have a lowpass filter with a 1k cutoff frequency, only the fundamental sine wave can pass through your filter (with a -3dB gain).

Your output signal should look like a sine wave, since the next sine wave that forms your square wave has a frequency of 2kHz.

Sorry for the crappy expanation, english isn't my primary language.
 
I'd like to add that the only signals that can pass through a hardware* filter without being deformed are sine waves. Why? Every other signal is actually formed by a combination (sum) of sine waves of different frequencies. Since these individual sine waves all have a different gain when going through a filter, the output wave (given by the sum of the individual sine waves) will have a different enveloppe.

*Obviously if you use a software to filter signals, it can be programmed to "fix" this issue.
 
Thanks for the help!
 
I can answer your question mathematically...

What's your transfer function?

Let me guess...1/(JωRC+1)

That is found by taking your voltage divider across your cap

1/jwc/(1/jwc + R)

Multiply top and bottom by jwc...and you get...

1/(JωRC+1)

Your break frequency happens when ω= 1/RC.

So when ω= 1/RC...you are left with

1/(j+1)

What is the magnitude and value of this lovely function?

Well...I'll simplify so you can see. 1/(1.41 at -45 degrees)

Simply further and you get .7 at -45 degrees.

Ok...now to your actual question...where does the -3 dB come from?

You know that you find dB from this equation ~ 20 log |gain|

20 log .7 = ~ -3dB.
I also just proved that your phase angle will be -45 degrees at the break as well.

However...all that may go away if you are talking a non ideal situation...
 
No offense but have you read his question? He said he chose his R and C to get -3dB at 1kHz. Obviously he was able to find and solve the transfer function.



psparky said:
I can answer your question mathematically...

What's your transfer function?

Let me guess...1/(JωRC+1)

That is found by taking your voltage divider across your cap

1/jwc/(1/jwc + R)

Multiply top and bottom by jwc...and you get...

1/(JωRC+1)

Your break frequency happens when ω= 1/RC.

So when ω= 1/RC...you are left with

1/(j+1)

What is the magnitude and value of this lovely function?

Well...I'll simplify so you can see. 1/(1.41 at -45 degrees)

Simply further and you get .7 at -45 degrees.

Ok...now to your actual question...where does the -3 dB come from?

You know that you find dB from this equation ~ 20 log |gain|

20 log .7 = ~ -3dB.
I also just proved that your phase angle will be -45 degrees at the break as well.

However...all that may go away if you are talking a non ideal situation...
 
  • #10
That filter seems to be for 10 KHz.

1/ F = 2 * π * R * C = 2 * π * 1000 * 16 * 10^-9

F = 9947 Hz
 
  • #11
vk6kro said:
That filter seems to be for 10 KHz.

1/ F = 2 * π * R * C = 2 * π * 1000 * 16 * 10^-9

F = 9947 Hz
Did you drop a zero somewhere, good sir?
 
  • #12
Yes, I see the 10 K now. Thanks.

I read the 1 K frequency as the resistance.
 
  • #13
No offense but have you read his question? He said he chose his R and C to get -3dB at 1kHz. Obviously he was able to find and solve the transfer function.

I write that out mathematically because most students are told it drops 3 dB at the break without knowing WHY. They see all the graphs of filters with the 3 db drop and just take it as that. For all of you who already know this, I apologize for insulting your intelligence with such a trivial post. However, if just one person learned something...then my post was a success.

To this day I have not met one student or EE in person that knows why it drops 3 dB mathematically. Therefore, I assume it to be a weak point for most.
 
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