Understanding Dirac Delta Squares: Clarifying Doubts

hermitian
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
hi,

may someone help me to clarify my doubts...

in my work, i encounter diracdelta square \delta(x-x_1)\delta(x-x_2) i am not sure what it means... it seems if i integrate it

\int dx \;\delta(x-x_1)\delta(x-x_2) = \delta(x_1-x_2) is either zero of infinity.

is this correct?

thanks
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
Technically, saying that it has "value zero or infinity" doesn't make sense. Any Dirac delta only makes sense under an integral sign (although in physics, we tend to think of it as being an "infinite spike with a finite area").

It is correct that
<br /> \int dx \;\delta(x-x_1)\delta(x-x_2) = \delta(x_1-x_2)<br />

So, again, this expression again only makes sense inside an integral, like
\int dx_1 \int dx \; \delta(x - x_1) \delta(x - x_2) = \int dx_1 \; \delta(x_1 - x_2)
which is one or zero (depending on whether or not x2 lies in the integration interval of the x1 integral).
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. In Dirac’s Principles of Quantum Mechanics published in 1930 he introduced a “convenient notation” he referred to as a “delta function” which he treated as a continuum analog to the discrete Kronecker delta. The Kronecker delta is simply the indexed components of the identity operator in matrix algebra Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/what-exactly-is-diracs-delta-function/ by...
Fermat's Last Theorem has long been one of the most famous mathematical problems, and is now one of the most famous theorems. It simply states that the equation $$ a^n+b^n=c^n $$ has no solutions with positive integers if ##n>2.## It was named after Pierre de Fermat (1607-1665). The problem itself stems from the book Arithmetica by Diophantus of Alexandria. It gained popularity because Fermat noted in his copy "Cubum autem in duos cubos, aut quadratoquadratum in duos quadratoquadratos, et...
I'm interested to know whether the equation $$1 = 2 - \frac{1}{2 - \frac{1}{2 - \cdots}}$$ is true or not. It can be shown easily that if the continued fraction converges, it cannot converge to anything else than 1. It seems that if the continued fraction converges, the convergence is very slow. The apparent slowness of the convergence makes it difficult to estimate the presence of true convergence numerically. At the moment I don't know whether this converges or not.
Back
Top