Understanding Dirac Delta Squares: Clarifying Doubts

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the interpretation of the product of two Dirac delta functions, specifically the expression δ(x-x1)δ(x-x2). It is clarified that this expression only has meaning under an integral, leading to the result that ∫ dx δ(x-x1)δ(x-x2) equals δ(x1-x2). The notion of it being "zero or infinity" is deemed incorrect, as the Dirac delta function is conceptualized as an "infinite spike with a finite area." The correct understanding emphasizes that the product of delta functions must be evaluated within the context of an integral. Overall, the conversation aims to clarify the mathematical treatment of Dirac delta functions in integrals.
hermitian
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hi,

may someone help me to clarify my doubts...

in my work, i encounter diracdelta square \delta(x-x_1)\delta(x-x_2) i am not sure what it means... it seems if i integrate it

\int dx \;\delta(x-x_1)\delta(x-x_2) = \delta(x_1-x_2) is either zero of infinity.

is this correct?

thanks
 
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Technically, saying that it has "value zero or infinity" doesn't make sense. Any Dirac delta only makes sense under an integral sign (although in physics, we tend to think of it as being an "infinite spike with a finite area").

It is correct that
<br /> \int dx \;\delta(x-x_1)\delta(x-x_2) = \delta(x_1-x_2)<br />

So, again, this expression again only makes sense inside an integral, like
\int dx_1 \int dx \; \delta(x - x_1) \delta(x - x_2) = \int dx_1 \; \delta(x_1 - x_2)
which is one or zero (depending on whether or not x2 lies in the integration interval of the x1 integral).
 
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