ZedCar
- 353
- 1
Am I correct in thinking exp(−x^2 ) is an even function?
Thanks
Thanks
micromass said:Yes! Do you see why?
ZedCar said:I think it's because if the x was replaced by (-x) you would have
exp(−(-x)^2 ) = exp(-x^2) which is the same as the original function
It's the same either with a +x or -x making it an even function.