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If I know that \sum_{k=1}^n a_{ik} = 1 and \sum_{j=1}^n b_{kj} = 1, why is the following permitted?
\sum_{j=1}^n \sum_{k=1}^n a_{ik}b_{kj} = \left(\sum_{j=1}^n b_{kj}\right) \left(\sum_{k=1}^n a_{ik}\right) = 1\cdot 1 = 1
Thanks!
\sum_{j=1}^n \sum_{k=1}^n a_{ik}b_{kj} = \left(\sum_{j=1}^n b_{kj}\right) \left(\sum_{k=1}^n a_{ik}\right) = 1\cdot 1 = 1
Thanks!