Uniqueness of canonical transformations

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the uniqueness of canonical transformations in mechanics, specifically whether the transformation from momentum \( p \) to \( P \) is uniquely determined given a transformation from coordinate \( q \) to \( Q \). The scope includes theoretical aspects of Hamiltonian mechanics and the properties of canonical transformations.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions whether the map \( p \rightarrow P \) is uniquely determined by the transformation \( q \rightarrow Q \) in a canonical transformation.
  • Another participant provides a derivation suggesting that the transformation is determined up to an arbitrary function \( \tilde{P}(q) \), indicating that it is not uniquely defined.
  • A later reply corrects an earlier statement regarding the sign in the transformation, emphasizing the importance of the Poisson-bracket relations for the transformation to be canonical.
  • Participants discuss the broader implications of canonical transformations compared to symmetry transformations, noting that canonical transformations encompass a larger group of transformations in Hamiltonian mechanics.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the uniqueness of the transformation from \( p \) to \( P \), with some suggesting it is not unique due to the presence of an arbitrary function, while others emphasize the conditions required for the transformation to be canonical.

Contextual Notes

The discussion includes assumptions about the nature of transformations and the conditions under which they are considered canonical, which may not be fully resolved in the conversation.

neelakash
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The following question seems to be simple enough...Anyway, I hope if someone could confirm what I am thinking.

Is canonical transformation in mechanics unique? We know that given [tex]\ (q, p)\rightarrow\ (Q, P)[/tex], [tex]\ [q,p] = [Q,P] = constant[/tex] and Hamilton's equations of motion stay the same in the new co-ordinates.

My question is: given [tex]\ q\rightarrow Q[/tex] in a canonical transoformation, is the map [tex]\ p\rightarrow P[/tex] uniquely determined? Seems yes to me, but I do not find an off-hand argument in favour.

Can anyone tell how to derive this map?

-Regards,
Neel
 
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This is a simplified special case, i.e.,
[tex]Q=Q(q).[/tex]
Now we have
[tex]\{Q,P \}=Q'(q) \frac{\partial P}{\partial p} \stackrel{!}{=} 1.[/tex]
This means that
[tex]\frac{\partial P}{\partial p}=-\frac{1}{Q'(q)}.[/tex]
This means that
[tex]P(q,p)=-\frac{p}{Q'(q)}+\tilde{P}(q).[/tex]
with an arbitrary function [itex]\tilde{P}(q)[/itex] alone. Thus, the canonical transformation is determined up to this arbitrary function only.
 
Thanks for the reply...I think I see your point; in such a case, apparently [tex]p\rightarrow P[/tex] is a linear map...By the way, if it was intended, I could not understand the appearance of [tex]'!'[/tex] and [tex]'-'[/tex] sign.
 
Argh! The minus sign is simply wrong.

The exclamation mark over the equality sign indicates that this is a constraint to make the transformation a canonical one (i.e., a symplectomorphism on phase space). One can show that a transformation is canonical if and only if the canonical Poisson-bracket relations hold for the new variables. So the correct answer to your question is

[tex]Q=Q(q), \quad P(q,p)=+\frac{p}{Q'(q)}+\tilde{P}(q).[/tex]

By the way, this is the special case of a "point transformation", which is the same as changing from a generalized coordinate [itex]q[/itex] to an arbitrary new one, [itex]Q[/itex] within the Lagrangian formulation of analytical mechanics.

The important point to realize is that the Hamilton formulation admits a larger group of transformations, namely the canonical transformations!
 
I agree fully...The scope of canonical transformations is a larger than the so-called symmetry transformations...Thank you very much for the explanations...
 

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