US judge cites Sharia Law in decision

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jarednjames said:
GeargCantor, words fail me.

You OWN a car, you DO NOT in any way own your wife / husband.

If you take two people, one says "I want to have sex with you" and the other says "no", but the first proceeds to do it anyway, that is rape, whether in marriage or not.


I understand now that is a commonly accepted understanding in the US, but you are asking for trouble with this. A "rape" by a husband is not comparable in ANY way WHATSOEVER to a rape by a stranger. And this is exactly 100.00% certain.
 
GeorgCantor said:
Reference please.
as above

OF COURSE! At least once in their lifetime. Isn't that somewhat obvious?[/QUOTE said:
rubbish unless you prove it with a reference

If she has had sex for 5 years with you on 1003 occassions said:
again, rubbish

I am not from the US said:
i prefer that law to ones such as having a hand removed for theft...
 
GeorgCantor said:
I understand now that is a commonly accepted understanding in the US, but you are asking for trouble with this. A "rape" by a husband is not comparable in ANY way WHATSOEVER to a rape by a stranger. And this is exactly 100.00% certain.

The physiological and psychological effects of rape whether from husband or stranger are no different.

edit: i want numbers to prove you 100% certain. so far you haven't given any references and as such are working against the rules of this forum