- #1
PhysicsGente
- 89
- 3
This is not a homework question but I think this is the best place to ask it.
I was reading a book on quantum mechanics and I came across this expression using the Coulomb gauge in a constant magnetic field,
[tex]\left(\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{A}\right)_{i} = \epsilon_{ijk}\partial_{j}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\epsilon_{kst}x_{s}B_{t}\right) [/tex]
But where is the -1/2 coming from?
I was reading a book on quantum mechanics and I came across this expression using the Coulomb gauge in a constant magnetic field,
[tex]\left(\vec{\nabla}\times\vec{A}\right)_{i} = \epsilon_{ijk}\partial_{j}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\epsilon_{kst}x_{s}B_{t}\right) [/tex]
But where is the -1/2 coming from?