Special relativity - Gauge invariance

In summary: I do not write the derivates respect ##x## and ##y## since they are obviously zero.The Attempt at a SolutionFirst of all I have some doubts about the form of the four-potential. Usually a four-potential is given in this way: scalar potential ##\phi## entry, vectorial potential ##\vec{A}## entries (x, y and z components). In this situation we have ##\phi = e^{-kz}##. However, there is a function of only ##y## as ##A_x##. So I have thought that the four-vector is given back to front ##(A_z,A_y,A_x,
  • #1
Aleolomorfo
73
4

Homework Statement


In an inertial reference frame ##S## is given the four-potential:
$$A^\mu=(e^{-kz}, e^{-ky},0,0)$$
with ##k## a real constant.
  1. ##A^\mu## fullfills the Lorentz gauge? And the Coulomb gauge?
  2. Which is the four-potential ##A'^\mu## in a reference frame ##S'## which is moving relatively to ##S## with velocity ##v## along the z-axis?
  3. ##A'^\mu## fullfills the Lorentz gauge? And the Coulomb gauge?

Homework Equations


Lorentz gauge: ##\partial_\mu A^\mu=0##
Coulomb gauge: ##\vec{\nabla}\cdot\vec{A}=0##

The Attempt at a Solution


First of all I have some doubts about the form of the four-potential. Usually a four-potential is given in this way: scalar potential ##\phi## entry, vectorial potential ##\vec{A}## entries (x, y and z components). In this situation we have ##\phi = e^{-kz}##. However, there is a function of only ##y## as ##A_x##. So I have thought that the four-vector is given back to front ##(A_z,A_y,A_x,\phi)##. The result of the first question depend on this choice. I have other doubts about this exercise but first I would like to solve this problem first and then writing the others.
 
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  • #2
Aleolomorfo said:
So I have thought that the four-vector is given back to front ##(A_z,A_y,A_x,\phi)##. The result of the first question depend on this choice. I have other doubts about this exercise but first I would like to solve this problem first and then writing the others.

I would say it is more common to place the time-component first. However, this is a convention and you must check how it is done in whatever text you are taking the problem from.
 
  • #3
I think that the (standard) order is correct, so that the is mixing (that gives the desired result) between the t and x components upon a change of frame.

I hope that I am not giving too much away, but I think that the point of the exercise is that the Lorenz (not Lorentz) condition equation is covariant, while the Coulomb gauge equation is not. Consequently, if the the Lorenz condition is satisfied in one inertial frame, i is satisfied in all inertial frame. The Coulomb gauge, however, can be satisfied in one frame and not satisfied in another.
 
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  • #4
George Jones said:
Lorenz (not Lorentz)
Yes, sorry. I always forget that there is not the "t".

George Jones said:
I think that the (standard) order is correct, so that the is mixing (that gives the desired result) between the t and x components upon a change of frame.
So if the order is correct, in ##S## both the Lorenz gauge and the Coulomb gauge are satisfied. Since the Lorenz gauge is satisfied in ##S## I can say that it is satisfied in all inertial references, and so also in ##S'##. Instead for the Coulomb gauge I have to write ##A'##:
$$A'^\mu=(\gamma e^{-kz},e^{-ky},0,-\gamma v e^{-kz})$$
And so in ##S'## the coulomb gauge is not satisfied since ##\vec{\nabla'}\cdot A'\neq 0##. However also the Lorenz gauge is not satrisfied in this frame, where is the mistake?
 
  • #5
Please show your computations.
 
  • #6
Reference ##S## (##c=1##)
$$A^\mu=(e^{-kz}, e^{-ky},0,0)$$
Lorenz gauge: ##\partial_\mu A^\mu=\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial t}-\frac{\partial A_x}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial A_y}{\partial y}-\frac{\partial A_z}{\partial z}=\frac{\partial }{\partial t}e^{-kz}-\frac{\partial}{\partial x}e^{-ky}=0##. Lorenz gauge is satisfied.
Coulomb gauge: ##\vec{\nabla}\cdot\vec{A}=0## (calculus is the same as for lorenz gauge)

To write ##A'^\mu## I use Lorentz transformations along z-axis for four-vector: ##A'^\mu=(\gamma(\phi-vA_z),A_x,A_y,\gamma(A_z-v\phi))##. The result is:
$$A'^\mu=(\gamma e^{-kz},e^{-ky},0,-\gamma v e^{-kz})$$
I repeat the same calculus done in ##S## and I obtain what I stated in the previous message:
Aleolomorfo said:
And so in S′S′S' the coulomb gauge is not satisfied since →∇′⋅A′≠0∇′→⋅A′≠0\vec{\nabla'}\cdot A'\neq 0. However also the Lorenz gauge is not satrisfied in this frame, where is the mistake?
 
  • #7
Aleolomorfo said:
I repeat the same calculus done in ##S## and I obtain what I stated in the previous message:

With respect to what did you differentiate the components of A'?
 
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  • #8
George Jones said:
With respect to what did you differentiate the components of A'?
I differentiated with respect to ##t,x,y,z## and now I see this is not correct. I have to differentiate with respect to ##t',x',y',z'##. So:
Lorenz condition in ##S'##: ## \frac{\partial\phi'}{\partial t'}-\frac{\partial A'_x}{\partial x'}-\frac{\partial A'_y}{\partial y'}-\frac{\partial A'_z}{\partial z'}##. But my potential is given in terms of the old coordinates so I have to change the derivatives.
Since ##t=\gamma(t'+vz')## and ##z=\gamma(z'+vt')##:
$$\frac{\partial}{\partial t'}=\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\frac{\partial t}{\partial t'}+\frac{\partial}{\partial x}\frac{\partial x}{\partial t'}+\frac{\partial}{\partial y}\frac{\partial y}{\partial t'}+\frac{\partial}{\partial z}\frac{\partial z}{\partial t'}=\gamma\frac{\partial}{\partial t}+\gamma v\frac{\partial}{\partial z}$$
Mutatis mutandis:
$$\frac{\partial}{\partial z'}=\gamma v\frac{\partial}{\partial t}+\gamma\frac{\partial}{\partial z}$$
But If I see if the lorenz conditon is satisfied I will find:
$$\partial'_\mu A'^\mu=\gamma\frac{\partial\phi'}{\partial t}+\gamma v\frac{\partial \phi'}{\partial z}-\gamma v\frac{\partial A'_z}{\partial t}-\gamma\frac{\partial A'_z}{\partial z}$$
I do not write the derivates respect ##x## and ##y## since they are obviously zero.
$$\partial'_\mu A'^\mu=\gamma^2 v (-k)e^{-kz}+\gamma^2 v (-k)e^{-kz}$$
But this is not zero. Maybe I have done a calculus mistake but I have checked twice and I did not find it; or maybe there is a conceptual mistake.
 
  • #9
Aleolomorfo said:
## \frac{\partial\phi'}{\partial t'}-\frac{\partial A'_x}{\partial x'}-\frac{\partial A'_y}{\partial y'}-\frac{\partial A'_z}{\partial z'}##.

Do you really want to use this combination of signs and index placement? If so, you have to change the upstairs indices in

Aleolomorfo said:
$$A'^\mu=(\gamma e^{-kz},e^{-ky},0,-\gamma v e^{-kz})$$

to downstairs indices.
 
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  • #10
Ok, I've found the solution. Thank you very much indeed to George Jones for his help!
 

What is special relativity?

Special relativity is a theory developed by Albert Einstein in 1905 that explains the relationship between space and time. It states that the laws of physics are the same for all observers in uniform motion and that the speed of light is constant in all inertial frames of reference.

What is gauge invariance in special relativity?

Gauge invariance is a principle in special relativity that states that the physical laws should be independent of the choice of gauge, or mathematical framework, used to describe them. This means that the laws of physics should remain the same regardless of the coordinate system or reference frame used to observe them.

How does gauge invariance relate to the laws of electromagnetism?

In special relativity, gauge invariance is closely related to the laws of electromagnetism. Maxwell's equations, which describe the behavior of electric and magnetic fields, are invariant under gauge transformations. This means that different observers moving at different speeds will still measure the same electric and magnetic fields.

Why is gauge invariance important in special relativity?

Gauge invariance is important in special relativity because it allows for a consistent and unified description of physical laws. It also helps to reconcile the seemingly different theories of electromagnetism and relativity. Without gauge invariance, these theories would be incompatible with each other.

Are there any real-world applications of gauge invariance in special relativity?

Yes, gauge invariance has many real-world applications in fields such as particle physics, quantum mechanics, and cosmology. For example, it is used in the Standard Model of particle physics to explain the behavior of elementary particles and their interactions. It is also a crucial concept in the theory of general relativity, which describes the behavior of gravitation.

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