Verifying Geometric Series Formula: \sum\limits_{k = 0}^N {r^k }

AI Thread Summary
The geometric series formula \(\sum\limits_{k = 0}^N {r^k } = \frac{{1 - r^{N + 1} }}{{1 - r}}\) is confirmed as correct. The discussion also touches on the convention for the nth partial sum of a series, suggesting that it typically starts at \(n \geq 1\) but can be awkward when starting at zero. Clarification is sought regarding the Nth partial sum when the series starts at a different index, with a specific example provided. Additionally, the differentiation of power series is discussed, noting that while index shifts are often optional, they can be customary for clarity. The conversation emphasizes the importance of understanding these technical details in series and differentiation.
Benny
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This has been bothering me for a while. I've seen many different versions of this and I'd just like to get the following cleared up. Is the following true?

<br /> \sum\limits_{k = 0}^N {r^k } = \frac{{1 - r^{N + 1} }}{{1 - r}}<br />

There are other related things I am slightly worried about but I can't remember what they are at the moment so I might post them later. In the mean time, any verification of the above formula that I have quoted would be good thanks.
 
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That is correct :smile:
 
Ok thanks TD. I have another question and I realize that it usually depends on the convention adopted by the particular lecturer but other input shouldn't hurt. When we refer the the nth partial sum of a series. Do we take n >= 1? I mean with a series like \sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty {a_n } it makes sense to take n>=1 but it seems to get awkward when the summation is started at zero instead.

Anyway suppose that when we refer to the nth partial sum of a series we take n>=1 and that the Nth partial sum of the series I stated above is s_N = 1 + \frac{1}{{5^N }}. Then is the Nth partial sum of the series \sum\limits_{n = 2}^\infty {a_n } (I have replaced 1 by 2 as the starting index) s_N = \left( {1 + \frac{1}{{5^N }}} \right) + a_{N + 1}. I just want to make sure of these things, I always screw up on relatively easy questions due to little technicalities.

Just one more question. If I recall correctly then: f\left( x \right) = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^\infty {c_n \left( {x - a} \right)^n } \to f&#039;\left( x \right) = \sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty {c_n n\left( {x - a} \right)^{n - 1} }

So in differentiating the series above, an index shift was required. Ok but what about the following series?
<br /> f\left( x \right) = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^\infty {\frac{{\left( { - 1} \right)^n x^{2n + 1} }}{{\left( {2n + 1} \right)!}}} \to f&#039;\left( x \right) = \sum\limits_{n = 0}^\infty {\frac{{\left( { - 1} \right)^n x^{2n} }}{{\left( {2n} \right)!}}} <br />

I find that only the first series that I quoted requires an index shift when I differentiate whereas other ones that I've encountered do not. Is there a reason for this?(I am aware of the first term in the first series being a constant and hence disappearing upon differentiation) Is it usually true that if you have a series for a function and you differentiate it inside the interval of convergence then no index shifts are required? Any help would be great.
 
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An index change is never necessary; always optional. When differentiating power series, it is customary to change the index from 0 to 1 because the oth term is 0 anyway.
 
Thanks quasar, I see what you mean.
 
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