A Vlasov-Fokker-Plank(VFP) equation from Boltzmann equation

Pedro de la Torre
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
Dear community,
I am studying some equations related to the acceleration of cosmic rays(CRs) in magnetized plasma and I have seen a couple the equations I am not able to understand.
First, I see that it is used as time-dependent Boltzmann equation for the CRs

∂ƒ/∂t + (vx + u)∂ƒ/∂x - ∂u/∂xpx∂ƒ/∂ px + FL/a ∂ƒ/∂p = C(f)
, where u is the background plasma velocity, FL is the Lorentz force and C(f) is the collision term.
The problem is that I have always seen this equation as ∂ƒ/∂t + (vx + u)∂ƒ/∂x + FL/a ∂ƒ/∂p = C(f), this is, without the term - ∂u/∂x px ∂ƒ/∂px that I am not able toderive.

Then, this equation is linearized supposing that the distribution function, f = f0 + f1 p/p to obtain the VFP equation:

u∂ƒ0/∂x + c/3 ∂ƒ/∂x -1/3 ∂u/∂x p ∂ƒ0/∂px
How do we arrive to this expression? It is clear for me that the steady state solution is taken, so ∂ƒ/∂t = 0, but I do not even understand why the factor fx appears there (fx is the x component of the vector f1).

Could someone explain me the first "modified" Boltzmann eq. and how to reach the expression of the VFP eq?

Thank you in advance.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
It might help if you tell us where you read this, which would help with context, e.g., a paper or textbook. Thanks.
 
jim mcnamara said:
It might help if you tell us where you read this, which would help with context, e.g., a paper or textbook. Thanks.

The paper in which I have seen that is: A. R. Bell, Cosmic ray acceleration (https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0927650512001272)
And what I have called "modified" Boltzmann equation is the equation 1 of the paper.
 
I think that term comes from the strange fact that they refer to ##f(x,\vec{p})## being defined in the local fluid rest frame, i.e., the CR momenta ##\vec{p}## are taken in the fluid rest frame. That's unusual in relativistic transport theory, where one usually uses one "computational frame", and ##f(x,\vec{p})## is a Lorentz scalar function anyway (by definition!). For an intro to relativistic transport theory, see

https://th.physik.uni-frankfurt.de/~hees/publ/kolkata.pdf
 
  • Like
Likes Pedro de la Torre
Toponium is a hadron which is the bound state of a valance top quark and a valance antitop quark. Oversimplified presentations often state that top quarks don't form hadrons, because they decay to bottom quarks extremely rapidly after they are created, leaving no time to form a hadron. And, the vast majority of the time, this is true. But, the lifetime of a top quark is only an average lifetime. Sometimes it decays faster and sometimes it decays slower. In the highly improbable case that...
I'm following this paper by Kitaev on SL(2,R) representations and I'm having a problem in the normalization of the continuous eigenfunctions (eqs. (67)-(70)), which satisfy \langle f_s | f_{s'} \rangle = \int_{0}^{1} \frac{2}{(1-u)^2} f_s(u)^* f_{s'}(u) \, du. \tag{67} The singular contribution of the integral arises at the endpoint u=1 of the integral, and in the limit u \to 1, the function f_s(u) takes on the form f_s(u) \approx a_s (1-u)^{1/2 + i s} + a_s^* (1-u)^{1/2 - i s}. \tag{70}...
Back
Top