- #1

dRic2

Gold Member

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$$\psi \approx e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \frac{e^{ikr}} r$$

But then he said that the square value of ##\psi## is just ##|f(\theta)|^2## because we neglect the contribution of the first term (that is, we neglect some sort of interference phenomena). My first question is: then why bother says ##\psi = e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \frac{e^{ikr}} r## instead of simply putting ##\psi = f(\theta) \frac{e^{ikr}} r## ?

Then he says that the differential cross section is just ##|f(\theta)|^2## but I don't really follow the given explanation.

Can someone provide any hint?

Thanks

Ric