Wavefunction after position measurement

MHD93
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Suppose I have a particle confined between 0 and d on the x axis, and it has some wavefunction, if I measured the particle to be between some small interval [a, b], would the wavefunction collapse into a rectangle-like function with equal prob. density on the interval and zero outside? or what?

Suppose, instead, that I measured the region [a, b] and did NOT find the particle there, it is reasonable that the wavefunction would be affected (i.e. it must become zero on [a, b]). Right or wrong? and if right how will it look like?
 
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What do you mean by measure the particle in some small interval? Do you mean you have some measuring device that if the particle is between a and b returns yes? Or do you mean you have a measuring device that will tell the actual position between a and b? If the former then yes if the latter it will collapse to a Dirac Delta function at the measured position.

If you measure it and under either scenario its not between a and b then it will collapse to a wave-function that is zero between the area you measured the position.

Under both scenarios it will quickly spread via the Schrodenger equation.

Thanks
Bill
 
Do you mean you have some measuring device that if the particle is between a and b returns yes?
Yes, I am talking about this.

...it will collapse to a wave-function that is zero between the area you measured the position
and elsewhere? this is my question.
 
Mohammad_93 said:
and elsewhere? this is my question.

What it was before - but that will quickly collapse into the solutions of a particle in the box via the Schrodinger Equation.

Thanks
Bill
 
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