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Does 'Weirstrass theorem' allow the existence of an entire function so:
f(z)= g(z) \prod _p(1- \frac{x}{p^{k}})
so for every prime p then f(p)=0 , and k>1 and integer??
the main question is to see if a function can have all the primes as its real roots
f(z)= g(z) \prod _p(1- \frac{x}{p^{k}})
so for every prime p then f(p)=0 , and k>1 and integer??
the main question is to see if a function can have all the primes as its real roots
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