What are valid coordinate transforms (diffeomorphisms)?

PAllen
Science Advisor
Messages
9,318
Reaction score
2,530
The thread bcrowell had on time reversal in GR got me thinking about this. Some limitations are obvious: mapping two events onto one, discontinuity,...

I will use x*, t*, etc. to refere to tansformed coordinates (primes always confuse me with derivatives).

Similarly, the transform x* = t, t* =x, is really just relabeling the time axis with the letter x instead of t; it isn't really doing anything physical. You would have to identify x* as the coordinate with all the properties of time after this transform. Physics doesn't care what letter I use.

But what about something like the following, based on a starting coordinate system that is maximally inertial minkowski in some local region (I assume c=1):

x*=t-x/2
t*=t+x/2

I now have two 'equally timelike' coordinates. Two of the basis vectors would be inside light cones instead of one. I can't see anything that prohibits this, yet I don't quite understand how to understand physics in such a coordinate system (for example, it doesn't identify any spacelike hypersurface).

Any insights welcomed.
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Well, the standard definition is that it must be a one-to-one map between points in the manifold and points in R(n), and that it must be smooth and its inverse must be smooth. So I think that your coordinate system above satisfies all of that. There is not a requirement that the coordinate basis vectors be orthonormal, so I think that the absence of that requirement implies that you are not restricted to coordinate systems with 3 spacelike and 1 timelike coordinate basis vectors.

To get a physical feeling it sometimes helps to write the metric. In this case you get two spacelike terms (y² and z²) two timelike terms (t*² and x*²) and one off-diagonal term which can be either timelike or spacelike (t* x*).
 
Last edited:
I agree with DaleSpam that there is nothing wrong with the coordinates defined in #1. A similar example in Minkowski space is u=x+t, v=x-t, which I think is fairly common, and gives you two null basis vectors. The basic idea is that coordinates in GR don't have built-in meanings.
 
bcrowell said:
A similar example in Minkowski space is u=x+t, v=x-t, which I think is fairly common, and gives you two null basis vectors. The basic idea is that coordinates in GR don't have built-in meanings.
Yes. And you can see that they are null vectors by looking at the metric again. In this case the metric is -uv-y²-z². So u and v are indeed null vectors which do not contribute to the spacetime interval by themselves at all, and again an off-diagonal term uv appears which can be either timelike or spacelike.
 
Thread 'Can this experiment break Lorentz symmetry?'
1. The Big Idea: According to Einstein’s relativity, all motion is relative. You can’t tell if you’re moving at a constant velocity without looking outside. But what if there is a universal “rest frame” (like the old idea of the “ether”)? This experiment tries to find out by looking for tiny, directional differences in how objects move inside a sealed box. 2. How It Works: The Two-Stage Process Imagine a perfectly isolated spacecraft (our lab) moving through space at some unknown speed V...
Does the speed of light change in a gravitational field depending on whether the direction of travel is parallel to the field, or perpendicular to the field? And is it the same in both directions at each orientation? This question could be answered experimentally to some degree of accuracy. Experiment design: Place two identical clocks A and B on the circumference of a wheel at opposite ends of the diameter of length L. The wheel is positioned upright, i.e., perpendicular to the ground...
In Philippe G. Ciarlet's book 'An introduction to differential geometry', He gives the integrability conditions of the differential equations like this: $$ \partial_{i} F_{lj}=L^p_{ij} F_{lp},\,\,\,F_{ij}(x_0)=F^0_{ij}. $$ The integrability conditions for the existence of a global solution ##F_{lj}## is: $$ R^i_{jkl}\equiv\partial_k L^i_{jl}-\partial_l L^i_{jk}+L^h_{jl} L^i_{hk}-L^h_{jk} L^i_{hl}=0 $$ Then from the equation: $$\nabla_b e_a= \Gamma^c_{ab} e_c$$ Using cartesian basis ## e_I...
Back
Top