What Causes the Change in Spin State from Fe(bipy)3 to Fe(bipy)2(H2O)2?

  • Thread starter Thread starter silimay
  • Start date Start date
AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the differences in spin states of iron complexes, specifically Fe(bipy)3 being low spin and Fe(bipy)2(H2O) being high spin. The key point is the influence of ligand field strength on the spin state of the complexes. High spin complexes typically occur when the ligand field is weak, allowing for unpaired electrons, while low spin complexes arise from strong field ligands that promote pairing of electrons in the lower energy d orbitals. The addition of two water ligands to Fe(bipy)2 significantly alters the ligand field strength, leading to a substantial change in the crystal field splitting energy (10Dq). This change in 10Dq is crucial as it determines whether the electrons will remain unpaired or pair up, thus affecting the overall spin state of the complex. The discussion emphasizes the importance of ligand types and their geometric arrangement in influencing the electronic properties of metal complexes.
silimay
Messages
25
Reaction score
0
Why is Fe(bipy)3 low spin, whereas Fe(bipy)2(H2O) high spin?
 
Chemistry news on Phys.org
Common, that's the most basic question, it must be covered in your book. Start with a general question - why are some complexes high spin whereas others are low spin? What does the spin tell about the d orbitals in the complexed metal?
 
The real question is, "Why does the addition of 2 water ligands change the value of 10Dq so much?"
 
It seems like a simple enough question: what is the solubility of epsom salt in water at 20°C? A graph or table showing how it varies with temperature would be a bonus. But upon searching the internet I have been unable to determine this with confidence. Wikipedia gives the value of 113g/100ml. But other sources disagree and I can't find a definitive source for the information. I even asked chatgpt but it couldn't be sure either. I thought, naively, that this would be easy to look up without...
I was introduced to the Octet Rule recently and make me wonder, why does 8 valence electrons or a full p orbital always make an element inert? What is so special with a full p orbital? Like take Calcium for an example, its outer orbital is filled but its only the s orbital thats filled so its still reactive not so much as the Alkaline metals but still pretty reactive. Can someone explain it to me? Thanks!!

Similar threads

Back
Top