What is the effect of a steady force on a cyclic object on a smooth surface?

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A steady force applied to a cyclic object on a smooth surface results in linear acceleration of the center of mass, calculated using Newton's second law (a = F/m). The discussion raises questions about angular acceleration, particularly because the force acts at a specific point on the object and there is no friction to create resistance. Participants clarify that the applied force does indeed produce torque, despite the absence of friction, as it acts on different points of the object over time. The moment of momentum equation can be used to determine angular acceleration, assuming the moment of inertia is known. Overall, the interaction between the force and the object's rotation is a key focus of the discussion.
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Hi everybody,
I need your help in one easy-looking problem that has confused me a bit.

Suppose we have a small cyclic object of mass m, just like in the picture, on a smooth surface. A steady force F is pulling it. The force is always on point A, like in the picture. Describe the object's movement. (for t=0, v=0)

Thanks
 

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1. Since the surface is smooth, only normal forces act upon the cylinder from the ground.

2. Use Newton's 2.law of motion to determin the acceleration of the center of mass
3. Use the moment-of momentum equation with respect to the center of mass to determine the angular acceleration.
 
arildno said:
1. Since the surface is smooth, only normal forces act upon the cylinder from the ground.

2. Use Newton's 2.law of motion to determin the acceleration of the center of mass
3. Use the moment-of momentum equation with respect to the center of mass to determine the angular acceleration.
I have found that if a is the acceleration of the center of mass then a=F/m. My problem is the angular acceleration. I am not sure if there's any at all. Of course there is N=RxF so a(ang)=(RxF)/I(cm) ? (supposing we know I(cm)) Is it that simple? The angular accelaration seems a bit weird for me for some reason because there is no resistance from the surface and because the force is always on A and not on a specific point of the mass.
 
It is no different than if a ball rolls and accelerates down an incline, then a frictional force acts upon whatever material point of the ball actually touching the incline at that particular moment.
This frictional force produces a torque about the center of mass.
 
arildno said:
It is no different than if a ball rolls and accelerates down an incline, then a frictional force acts upon whatever material point of the ball actually touching the incline at that particular moment.
This frictional force produces a torque about the center of mass.

Eh? Doesn't smooth imply no friction? It's the force, F that produces a torque, surely?
 
Nylex said:
Eh? Doesn't smooth imply no friction? It's the force, F that produces a torque, surely?
Yes, what I referred to was his puzzlement to why a force acting on successively different points of the ball still produces a torque.

The example with the friction was meant to convey that the actual contact point is not the same material point on the ball over time in the case of rolling.

I did not mean that there is any friction in the original case; F is the force producing the torque.
 
Nylex said:
Eh? Doesn't smooth imply no friction? It's the force, F that produces a torque, surely?
Yes, smooth impies no friction. Sorry guys for the bad use of language but it's the first time i am writing about Physics in English so I don't know many words.

Thanks for your help
 
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