What is the Infinitely Differentiability Theorem for Functions?

  • Thread starter Nedeljko
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In summary, the conversation discusses a theorem related to infinitely differentiable functions. The function g is defined and it is proven that it is continuous. There is a question about the theorem's name and a suggestion to simplify the proof by expanding f(x) as a Taylor series. There is also a discussion about the function g being infinitely Peano differentiable and a solution is eventually found.
  • #1
Nedeljko
40
0

Homework Statement



If [tex]f:R\longrightarrow R[/tex] is a infinitely differentiable function then the function [tex]g:R\longrightarrow R[/tex] defined as

[tex]
g(x)=\left\{
\begin{array}{ll}
\frac{f(x)-\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{f^{(k)}(0)}{k!}x^k}{x^{n+1}}, & x\neq 0,
\vspace{0.5em}\\
\frac{f^{(n+1)}(0)}{(n+1)!}, & x=0,
\end{array}
\right.
[/tex]

is also infinitely differentiable. Prove it.

Homework Equations



No.

The Attempt at a Solution



It is easy to prove that the function [tex]g[/tex] is continuous. By computing derivatives I can prove that the function is three times differentiable for example, but I can not make inductive step. Is this theorem known under any name?
 
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  • #2
Try simplifying the [itex]x \neq 0[/itex] case by expanding [itex]f(x)[/itex] as a Taylor series.
 
  • #3
What if [tex]f[/tex] is not analytic near 0?
 
  • #4
Nedeljko said:
What if [tex]f[/tex] is not analytic near 0?

Good point.

Well, the numerator is simply the remainder term [itex]R_n(x)[/itex], which is well-defined provided [itex]f[/itex] has enough derivatives, whether or not it is analytic (Taylor's theorem). For [itex]x \neq 0[/itex], there exists [itex]\xi[/itex] such that [itex]0 < \xi < x[/itex] such that

[tex]R_n(x) = \frac{f^{n+1}(\xi)}{(n+1)!}x^{n+1}[/tex]

Unfortunately, [itex]\xi[/itex] depends on [itex]x[/itex] so it's not a slam dunk from here.
 
  • #5
By this method I can prove that the function [tex]g[/tex] is infinitely Peano differentiable. It means that there are constants [tex]a_i[/tex] such that for any [tex]n[/tex] holds

[tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{g(x)-\sum_{k=0}^n\frac{a_k}{k!}x^k}{x^{n+1}}=0[/tex].

But, this is necessary and insufficient condition for the infinite differentiability in the ordinary sense.
 
  • #6
Somebody has a idea?
 
  • #7
I solved the problem.
 

Related to What is the Infinitely Differentiability Theorem for Functions?

1. What is "Infinitely Differentiability"?

"Infinitely differentiability" refers to a mathematical concept where a function can be differentiated an infinite number of times. This means that the function is smooth and has no abrupt changes or discontinuities in its graph.

2. How is "Infinitely Differentiability" different from just "Differentiability"?

Differentiability refers to a function being able to have a derivative at a certain point. However, "infinitely differentiability" means that the function has derivatives of all orders at every point within its domain.

3. Why is "Infinitely Differentiability" important in mathematics?

"Infinitely differentiability" is important because it allows for more precise and accurate calculations in mathematics. It also allows for more complex functions to be analyzed and understood.

4. Can all functions be "Infinitely Differentiable"?

No, not all functions can be infinitely differentiable. Some functions may have discontinuities or sharp changes in their graph, making them non-differentiable at certain points.

5. How is "Infinitely Differentiability" used in real-world applications?

"Infinitely differentiability" is used in real-world applications such as physics, engineering, and economics to model and analyze complex systems and phenomena. It allows for more accurate predictions and calculations in these fields.

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