What is the inverse function of erf?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the inverse error function, denoted as erf-1(x), its definition, properties, and its relationship with the error function (erf). Participants explore its mathematical representation, series expansions, and comparisons to other functions, particularly trigonometric functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants inquire about the meaning of erf-1(x) and whether it is equivalent to 1/erf.
  • One participant clarifies that erf denotes the error function and provides its integral definition.
  • A proposed approximate value for erf-1(0.6) is given, along with a distinction that erf-1(x) is not equal to 1/erf(x).
  • Another participant mentions the Taylor series expansion of the error function and notes that closed form expressions for its values may not exist.
  • There are comparisons made between the mechanics of the error function and trigonometric functions, with a note that the error function is not periodic.
  • A relationship between the error function and the cumulative normal distribution is introduced, along with its inverse functions.
  • One participant discusses the McLaurin series representation of the error function and its implications for the inverse function's series expansion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express varying degrees of understanding and agreement on the properties of the error function and its inverse, but no consensus is reached on all aspects, particularly regarding the nature of the inverse function and its comparison to other functions.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include potential misunderstandings about the relationship between erf and its inverse, as well as the complexity of deriving series expansions for the inverse function.

Wilmer
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What does erf^(-1)(x) mean?

erf^(-1)(.6) = ?

Is there a value for erf, like there is for pi and e?

is erf^(-1) same as 1/erf?

I found out erf = error function...hmmm...

THANKS for any explanations.
 
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This is the 'inverse error function'. It even has a Taylor series. Google 'inverse erf' and you will find info about it.
 
Wilmer said:
What does erf^(-1)(x) mean?

erf^(-1)(.6) = ?

is erf^(-1) same as 1/erf?

I found out erf = error function...hmmm...

THANKS for any explanations.

Hi Wilmer, :)

As you have correctly stated, \(\mbox{erf }\) denotes the error function, which is defined by the integral,

\[\mbox{erf }(x) = \frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}}\int_{0}^x e^{-t^2} dt\]

The inverse error function is denoted by \(\mbox{erf}^{-1}\). If we consider the power series representation of the inverse error function an approximate value for \(\mbox{erf}^{-1}(0.6)\) can be found out to any given precision.

\[\mbox{erf}^{-1}(0.6)\approx 0.5951160814499948500193\]

The inverse of a function \(f:X\rightarrow Y\) is defined as a function \(f^{-1}:Y\rightarrow X\) such that,

\[f(x) = y\,\,\text{if and only if}\,\,f^{-1}(y) = x\]

However it is not true in general that,

\[f^{-1}(x)=\frac{1}{f(x)}\]

For an example in the case of the error function,

\[\mbox{erf}(0.6)\approx 0.60385609084793\Rightarrow \frac{1}{\mbox{erf}(0.6)}=1.656023703587745\neq \mbox{erf}^{-1}(0.6)\]

So it is clear that generally,

\[\mbox{erf}^{-1}(x)\neq\frac{1}{\mbox{erf}(x)}\]

Is there a value for erf, like there is for pi and e?

The Taylor expansion of the error function is given by,

\[\mbox{erf}(z)= \frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}}\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n z^{2n+1}}{n! (2n+1)} \]

By the Alternating Series Test this series converges. Therefore the error function has a specific value at each point. However closed form expressions for these values may or may not exist. But there are closed form approximations of the error function so that values of certain accuracy can be found.

Kind Regards,
Sudharaka.
 
Last edited:
Thanks a lot, Sudharaka; very clear.

So, as far as the "mechanics" go, it works a bit like SIN or COS functions, right?
I mean every case is different...
 
Wilmer said:
Thanks a lot, Sudharaka; very clear.

So, as far as the "mechanics" go, it works a bit like SIN or COS functions, right?
I mean every case is different...

You are welcome. :) Yes in a way, but note that the trigonometric functions are periodic and the error function is not. See this.

Kind Regards,
Sudharaka.
 
Wilmer said:
Thanks a lot, Sudharaka; very clear.

So, as far as the "mechanics" go, it works a bit like SIN or COS functions, right?
I mean every case is different...

You should also be aware of the realtionship between the error function and the cumulative normal distribution:

\( \displaystyle \Phi(x)=\frac{1}{2}\left[1+{\rm{erf}} \left( \frac{x}{\sqrt{2}} \right) \right] \)

and hence the inverse functions:

\( \displaystyle {\rm{erf}}^{-1} (x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \Phi^{-1}\left( \frac{x-1}{2}\right) \)

CB
 
Merci beaucoup, ya'll !
 
The function erf(*) is an entire function that can be alternatively defined by its McLaurin series...

$\displaystyle \text{erf}\ (z)= \frac{2}{\sqrt{\pi}}\ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^{n}}{n!\ (2n+1)}\ z^{2n+1}$ (1)

It belongs to the family of functions having McLaurin series of the type...

$\displaystyle w=f(z)= c_{1}\ z + c_{2}\ z^{2} + c_{3}\ z^{3} + ...\ ,\ c_{1} \ne 0$ (2)

... and for them the coefficients inverse function McLaurin expansion...

$\displaystyle z= f^{-1}(w) = d_{1}\ w + d_{2}\ w^{2} + d_{3}\ w^{3}+...$ (3)

... can be computed with the formula...

$\displaystyle d_{n}=\frac{1}{n!}\ \lim_{z \rightarrow 0} \frac{d^{n-1}}{d z^{n-1}} \{\frac{z}{f(z)}\}^{n}$ (4)

The computation of the $d_{n}$ for the function $\text{erf}^{-1}(w)$ using (4) is tedious but not very difficult and it will performed in a successive post...

Kind regards

$\chi$ $\sigma$
 

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