What is the limit of (3x³ + cos(x)) / (sin(x) - x³) as x approaches infinity?

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The limit of (3x³ + cos(x)) / (sin(x) - x³) as x approaches infinity is discussed, with initial calculations leading to an incorrect conclusion of -∞. The squeeze theorem is misapplied, as the limits of cos(x) and sin(x) do not converge to specific values but oscillate between -1 and 1. Correctly applying the limit, it is determined that the expression simplifies to -3 as x approaches infinity. The importance of understanding the squeeze theorem is emphasized, particularly in relation to functions that do not converge. The final consensus is that the limit indeed exists and equals -3.
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1. lim as x->∞of 3x3+cosx/sinx-x3


2. My Attempt below:


3. lim as x->∞ of 3x3+lim as x->∞ of cosx/lim as x->∞ of sinx-lim as x->∞ of x3

Breaking down problem even further:

lim as x->∞ of 3x3 = ∞
lim as x->∞ of cosx= 1. This is because by squeeze theorem, -1<cosx<1, therefore lim reaches 1
lim as x->∞ of sinx= 1. This is because by squeeze theorem, -1<sinx<1, therefore lim reaches 1
lim as x->∞ of x3 =∞

∴ = +1/1-∞ = -∞

Is this correct?
 
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mathgeek69 said:
1. lim as x->∞of 3x3+cosx/sinx-x32. My Attempt below:3. lim as x->∞ of 3x3+lim as x->∞ of cosx/lim as x->∞ of sinx-lim as x->∞ of x3

Breaking down problem even further:

lim as x->∞ of 3x3 = ∞
lim as x->∞ of cosx= 1. This is because by squeeze theorem, -1<cosx<1, therefore lim reaches 1
lim as x->∞ of sinx= 1. This is because by squeeze theorem, -1<sinx<1, therefore lim reaches 1
lim as x->∞ of x3 =∞

∴ = +1/1-∞ = -∞

Is this correct?

I don't think you understand the squeeze theorem. Do you mean ##\frac{3x^3+\cos{x}}{\sin{x}-x^3}## or ##3x^3 + \frac{\cos{x}}{\sin{x}-x^3}##?
 
##\frac{3x^3+\cos{x}}{\sin{x}-x^3}##
 
mathgeek69 said:
##\frac{3x^3+\cos{x}}{\sin{x}-x^3}##
##\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{3x^3+\cos(x)}{\sin(x)-x^3}##
the limit does exist
 
janhaa said:
##\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{3x^3+\cos(x)}{\sin(x)-x^3}##
the limit does exist

And does the limit = -∞
 
janhaa said:
##\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{3x^3+\cos(x)}{\sin(x)-x^3}##
the limit does exist
no, sorry, it's

##\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{3x^3+\cos(x)}{\sin(x)-x^3}=-3##

try with the squeeze theorem
 
I am not getting the concept of squeeze theorem clearly. I thought the following:

lim as x->∞ of cosx= 1. This is because by squeeze theorem, -1<cosx<1, therefore lim reaches 1
lim as x->∞ of sinx= 1. This is because by squeeze theorem, -1<sinx<1, therefore lim reaches 1

What am I doing wrong?
 
mathgeek69 said:
I am not getting the concept of squeeze theorem clearly. I thought the following:

lim as x->∞ of cosx= 1. This is because by squeeze theorem, -1<cosx<1, therefore lim reaches 1
lim as x->∞ of sinx= 1. This is because by squeeze theorem, -1<sinx<1, therefore lim reaches 1

What am I doing wrong?

You aren't understanding what the squeeze rule says.

Let ##g(x)\leq f(x)\leq h(x)##. The squeeze rule says that, if ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow\alpha}g(x)=\lim_{x\rightarrow\alpha}h(x)=L##, then ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow\alpha}f(x)=L##.

For example, the squeeze theorem doesn't apply for ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\sin{x}## because ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}[-1]\neq\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}[1]##.

Edit:
Think of it this way.

$$\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{3x^3+\cos{x}}{\sin{x}-x^3}=\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{3x^3(1+\frac{\cos{x}}{3x^3})}{-x^3(-\frac{\sin{x}}{x^3}+1)}$$
 
Last edited:
ok then. When applying the squeeze theorem,

how are you concluding to this?##\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{3x^3+\cos(x)}{\sin(x)-x^3}=-3##
 
  • #10
Mandelbroth said:
Edit:
Think of it this way.

$$\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{3x^3+\cos{x}}{\sin{x}-x^3}=\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{3x^3(1+\frac{\cos{x}}{3x^3})}{-x^3(-\frac{\sin{x}}{x^3}+1)}$$

so ...

$$\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{3x^3+\cos{x}}{\sin{x}-x^3}=\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{3x^3(1+\frac{\cos{x}}{3x^3})}{-x^3(-\frac{\sin{x}}{x^3}+1)}$$ = -3

I GET IT! @Mandelbroth. your new edit was helpful! VERY HELPFUL

Cheers,
 
  • #11
I'm glad you got it. Now, let me point out that \lim_{x\to \infty} sin(x) and \lim_{x\to \infty} cos(x) are NOT 0. They continue to alternate between -1 and 1 and do not "approach" any number. You use the "squeeze theorem" to argue that because -1\le sin(x)\le 1 and -1\le cos(x)\le 1, -\frac{1}{x}\le \frac{sin(x)}{x}\le \frac{1}{x} and -\frac{1}{x}\le \frac{sin(x)}{x}\le \frac{1}{x} so that \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{sin(x)}{x}= \lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{cos(x)}{x}= 0.
 
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