What is the Limit of e^-n times n^k over k! for n Approaching Infinity?

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The limit of e^-n times the sum of n^k/k! as n approaches infinity is discussed, with initial speculation that it might equal 1. However, further analysis suggests that the limit is actually 1/2, relating it to the probability of a Poisson distribution with expectation value n. The central limit theorem is applied to support this conclusion, indicating that as n increases, the distribution approaches a Gaussian shape. Various mathematical manipulations and interpretations are explored, leading to the consensus that the limit is indeed less than or equal to 0.5. The discussion highlights the complexity of the problem and the collaborative effort in finding the solution.
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Find the following limit:

\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!}
 
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micromass said:
Find the following limit:

\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!}

I have the vaguest feeling that the limit is 1. I'm too tired to prove it right now. I'll get back to it soon. :-p

Edit: Probably not. Looking at it now, as shown below, it is an upper bound. Taking the expansion out a couple terms, it looks like it's less than 0.6.

Why is this called french fish? Is this hinting at using something by Poisson?
 
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Well, 1 is an upper limit:
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!} \leq \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{n^k}{k!} = \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} 1 = 1$$

It is interesting that
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!} = \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{n^k}{k!}$$ but I am not sure how to convert this to a lower limit on the limit.

Edit: Okay, that approach does not work. And the limit is not 1. I guess 1/2.

The question can be re-phrased as "in a Poisson distribution with expectation value n, what is the probability to get at most the expectation value?" - and then the limit of n->infinity. As the Poisson distribution approaches a Gaussian distribution, I would expect 1/2 as limit.
 
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mfb said:
Well, 1 is an upper limit:
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!} \leq \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{n^k}{k!} = \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} 1 = 1$$

It is interesting that
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!} = \lim_{n\rightarrow +\infty} e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{n^k}{k!}$$ but I am not sure how to convert this to a lower limit on the limit.

Edit: Okay, that approach does not work. And the limit is not 1. I guess 1/2.

The question can be re-phrased as "in a Poisson distribution with expectation value n, what is the probability to get at most the expectation value?" - and then the limit of n->infinity. As the Poisson distribution approaches a Gaussian distribution, I would expect 1/2 as limit.

Right. The limit is indeed 1/2. And an application of the central limit theorem gives the answer. Well done!
 
I worked out that the limit is less than or equal to 0.5:

Reversing it and using the Taylor series for e:
\frac{e^{n}}{ \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!}}=1+\frac{\sum_{k=n+1}^\infty \frac{n^k}{k!}}{ \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!}}
Introducing x=\frac{n^n}{n!}
\frac{\sum_{k=n+1}^\infty \frac{n^k}{k!}}{ \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!}}=\frac{x \frac{n}{n+1}+x \frac{n}{n+1} \frac{n}{n+2}+...}{x+x+x\frac{n-1}{n}+x\frac{n-1}{n}\frac{n-2}{n}+...}=\frac{\frac{n}{n+1}+\frac{n}{n+1} \frac{n}{n+2}+...}{2+\frac{n-1}{n}+\frac{n-1}{n}\frac{n-2}{n}+...}
The number of terms in the numerator is infinity, the denominator goes until the terms reach zero. For very large n we have a lot of terms close to 1, so we can neglect the 2. Since \frac{n}{n+a} > \frac{n-a}{n} and replacing some of the terms in the numerator like that to get a 1 the result is:
\frac{\frac{n}{n+1}+\frac{n}{n+1} \frac{n}{n+2}+...}{\frac{n-1}{n}+\frac{n-1}{n}\frac{n-2}{n}+...}>1+\frac{\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{(n)!n^k}{(2n+k)!}}{\frac{n-1}{n}+\frac{n-1}{n}\frac{n-2}{n}+...}
For large n the numerator of the second term goes to zero.

When I discarded the 2, maybe the denominator and numerator are quite equal, their difference is small and the 2 makes the denominator actually bigger. But in the limit it should be negligible, so the limit of the reciprocal is 2 or larger and the limit of the original expression is 0.5 or smaller.
 
You really like Obfuscation.
since
$$e^{-n} \sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n^k}{k!}=\left( 1+ \gamma(n+1,n)/\Gamma(n+1,n) \right)^{-1}$$
Why not just ask
$$\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \gamma(n+1,n)/\Gamma(n+1,n)=\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \int_0^n t^n e^{-t} \mathrm{d}t {\huge/} \int_n^\infty t^n e^{-t} \mathrm{d}t=1$$
 
lurflurf said:
You really like Obfuscation.

You don't seem to grasp the concept of a challenge :-p
 
Well done by mfb for finding the solution. The (partial) solution by chingel is also very nice!

And a special thanks to lurflurf for showing another neat interpretation of this problem!
 
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