What is the pressure at the tap due to Darcy losses?

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The discussion centers on calculating the pressure at a tap supplying water through a hose, considering Darcy losses due to friction. The formula used for Darcy losses is h = 4fLV²/d²g, leading to a derived pressure equation. Participants debate the correctness of the approach, particularly regarding energy conservation and the interpretation of pressure loss as head loss. Clarifications are made about the pressure at the tap being the sum of exit pressure and friction losses, while also addressing the stability of volumetric flow. The conversation emphasizes the complexity of applying energy conservation principles in this context.
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Homework Statement


There is a tap that supplies water to a L=21m hose. There are friction losses in the hose due to friction (Darcy losses).
f = 0.0138
ρ = 1000 kg/m3
diameter d= 0.025m
water velocity V=2.54m/s
What is the pressure at the tap?

Homework Equations


Darcy losses: h= 4fLV^2/d2g

The Attempt at a Solution


My solution says that the pressure energy in the tap will have to maintain a flow of 2.54m/s and overcome the Darcy losses.
Darcy pressure losses are h=4fLV^2/d2g, and since P=ρgh, we get P(darcy)=4fLgV^2/2d
As a result P(tap)=V^2/2g + 4fLgV^2/2d = 486Pa
But it doesn't seem correct, any idea?

Apparently, the correct solutions says P=ρgh(darcy)
 
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physea said:
But it doesn't seem correct
No, indeed. Just checking the dimensions might help ...

And: you sure about the factor 4 (always confusing: Darcy/Fanning) ?
(never mind - from the value of Re and f, I think you're right.
 
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physea said:
=V^2/2g +
How do you justify that term?
 
haruspex said:
How do you justify that term?

Basically from energy conservation.
If no Darcy losses were available, it would be PV=1/2*m*U^2, which divided by m, makes P=rho*U^2/2, which since P=rho*g*h, it becomes h=U^2/2g
To this, I add the Darcy head loss.

Is this approach correct?
 
We are talking about friction losses in a pipe -- not your everyday example of a process where energy conservation can be used in the calculations.

A few more issues:
physea said:
Apparently, the correct solutions says P=ρgh(darcy)
At the tap :rolleyes: ?

It's not ##p = \rho g h ## but ##\Delta p =\rho g \Delta h## where in this case the friction loss is/can be converted to head loss ##\Delta h##. Confusing but possible.

They ask for the pressure at the tap. That is pressure at the exit + pressure loss due to friction (plus a possible hydrostatic head, but you may assume the pipe is horzontal.)
 
physea said:
h=U^2/2g
Yeah, that's what you get if you spout vertically. We're in a different scenario here !
 
physea said:
Basically from energy conservation.
And that term represents a change in KE? Is there a change in KE?
 
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haruspex said:
And that term represents a change in KE? Is there a change in KE?

No, volumetric water flow is stable.
I assume that the pressure at the end of the hose is zero... well atmospheric
 
physea said:
No, volumetric water flow is stable.
I assume that the pressure at the end of the hose is zero... well atmospheric
Then I see no reason for that term. The total energy has the same ½ρv2 at beginning and end, so the two cancel.
 
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