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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi All,

In an experiment I ran to determine the trend between distance and magnetic force (produced by an electromagnet) the result showed that the trend was either an inverse quartic or inverse quintic function. Such a result was unexpected as the trend is documented as being an inverse cubic function. When trying to justify why such a result occurred it was proposed that the trend was a combination of the inverse cubic function for magnetism and the relationship between temperature and magnetic force (produced by an electromagnet). (This was thought due to errors within the experimental design which ultimately resulted in the temperature as distance decreased, increasing). I however do not know the trend which relates temperature and magnetic force (and after searching the internet for the better part of an hour still do not know). I attempted working out what the relationship should be using some crazy combination of Biot-Savart Law, Ohm’s Law and Joules First Law however I couldn’t understand how to correctly do this. Could someone please tell me what this relationship between temperature and magnetic force (produced by an electromagnet) is preferably with some kind of proof using formulae?

Thanks,

Z.C

(Edited to make magnetic force that of an electromagnet)

In an experiment I ran to determine the trend between distance and magnetic force (produced by an electromagnet) the result showed that the trend was either an inverse quartic or inverse quintic function. Such a result was unexpected as the trend is documented as being an inverse cubic function. When trying to justify why such a result occurred it was proposed that the trend was a combination of the inverse cubic function for magnetism and the relationship between temperature and magnetic force (produced by an electromagnet). (This was thought due to errors within the experimental design which ultimately resulted in the temperature as distance decreased, increasing). I however do not know the trend which relates temperature and magnetic force (and after searching the internet for the better part of an hour still do not know). I attempted working out what the relationship should be using some crazy combination of Biot-Savart Law, Ohm’s Law and Joules First Law however I couldn’t understand how to correctly do this. Could someone please tell me what this relationship between temperature and magnetic force (produced by an electromagnet) is preferably with some kind of proof using formulae?

Thanks,

Z.C

(Edited to make magnetic force that of an electromagnet)

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