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I have recently done an experiment testing the effect of temperature on magnetism through measurement of magnetic flux at a constant distance away from the measuring device. I used a range of 0-90 C for neodymium and bar magnets, and found a reasonably linear trend, with a similar slope to what I was expecting from its coefficient of residual induction.

However, when I inserted linear trendlines for my data, they gave an unreasonably high curie point (when there was 0 flux density) for the bar magnets, indicating the trend could not have been linear in order for the flux density to be 0 at the Curie point. Even more perplexing was the fact that the relationship DID seem to be linear for the neodymium magnets!

After I did some more research, I found that the temperature coefficient of residual induction was not necessarily linear, especially outside of the 0-100 C range. Does anyone have formulas which describes this change, or formulas for the relationship between magnetic flux density and temperature? I've researched for hours, but the best relationship I could come up with was the linear approximation from the temperature coefficient of residual induction.