What is the Time Taken for a Particle in S.H.M. to Return to its Starting Point?

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The discussion centers on calculating the time taken for a particle in simple harmonic motion (SHM) to return to its starting point after being released from rest. The participant derived the total time as t = 2√2a/g + 2√a/g(π - arccos(1/√3)), but faced confusion regarding the phase of the motion and the application of sine versus cosine in the SHM equations. Clarifications were sought on why the phase cannot decrease over time and the distinction between phase constant and phase itself. The conversation also highlighted that the particle's motion transitions from SHM to free fall once the elastic string reaches its natural length, affecting the calculations. Ultimately, the discussion resolved key misunderstandings about the nature of SHM and the forces involved.
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Homework Statement



A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a light elastic string of natural length a and force constant mg/a. The other end of the string is attached to a fixed point X. If the particle is released from rest at X, find time that elapses before it returns to X.


The Attempt at a Solution



Refer the figure made by me (not given in question)
I got the time taken from X to P and P to X [2√2a/g]

The problem I am facing is the time taken to travel from P to B and back
I got the equation of SHM as
x=Asin(ωt + ∂) where A = √3a and ω = √(g/a)
at t = 0 let x = a so that sin∂ = 1/√3
The particle will be again at P after time (say T)
a = √3a sin(ωT + ∂)
sin∂ = sin(ωT + ∂)
∂ = π - (ωT + ∂)
T = 1/ω ( π - 2arcsin( 1/√3 ) )
the total time taken is t = 2√2a/g + √a/g(π - 2arcsin( 1/√3 ))

The answer is t = 2√2a/g + 2√a/g(Π - arccos(1/√3))

In the solution, he took the equation of S.H.M. in terms of cos (not sin) and he too took
t = 0 at x=a
How can the two times taken be different no matter what equation you take?
 

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Your phase at t=0 is arcsin(1/√3) and at equilibrium it is 0 but phase can not decrease wth time!
Actually at t=0, x=-a. You can also see why they took the cos function-it is compatible with the increasing phase.
It would be much more convenient if you were to assume x=0 at your supposed x=a.
 
aim1732 said:
Your phase at t=0 is arcsin(1/√3) and at equilibrium it is 0 but phase can not decrease wth time!

Thanks for your reply.
I did not understand why phase can not decrease with time. Do you mean to say that phase is constant for a SHM?
 
Phase is ωt+Φ---- ω is positive and time t increases with time:biggrin:.
Φ is your phase constant.
 
But arcsin(1/√3) is phase constant not phase...
and phase constant is ∂ in my equation
 
At t=0 arcsin(1/√3) is phase as well as phase constant. But when x=0 which happens at t>0 phase and not phase constant is zero.
 
One more thing- Till where does the particle perform SHM during upward motion? its amplitude is √3 a
But we calculate its time period only till a distance 'a' from the mean position and not √3a.
In the answer,
t = 2√2a/g + 2√a/g(Π - arccos(1/√3))
The term on the left is obtained considering the acceleration to be 'g' during the motion from X to P and P to X. But in reality the particle executes SHM till a point A which is in between X and P. So acc. to me it is under the effect of gravity alone from A to X (not in SHM) and we have to find the time period of SHM from mean position to A and not P.
 
But in reality the particle executes SHM till a point A which is in between X and P.
No as soon as string acquires its natural length it tension becomes zero and particle is under free fall----- that is the qualitative difference b/w a string and a spring.
 
Thanks a ton! It cleared all the paradox!
 
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