What is the velocity of a particle at t=2seconds given force function (x)

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the velocity of a 210 g particle subjected to a force function, Fx = (10N) sin((2πt)/4), over the interval from 0 to 2 seconds. The participant correctly identifies that acceleration can be derived from the force using F=ma, leading to the acceleration function a = 10(sin(πt/2))/0.21. However, the integration of the acceleration function to find velocity results in zero, which is incorrect. The participant's mistake lies in the evaluation of the integral and the application of the chain rule, specifically in the integration of sin((πt)/2).

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Newton's second law (F=ma)
  • Basic knowledge of calculus, specifically integration
  • Familiarity with trigonometric functions and their integrals
  • Ability to evaluate definite integrals
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  • Practice evaluating definite integrals with variable limits
  • Learn about the application of the chain rule in calculus
  • Explore numerical methods for solving integrals using tools like Wolfram Alpha
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Students studying physics or calculus, particularly those working on problems involving force, mass, and motion. This discussion is also beneficial for anyone seeking to improve their integration skills in the context of physics applications.

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Homework Statement




Force Fx = (10N) sin( (2*pi*t)/4 ) where t is in seconds

this force Fx is exerted on a 210 g particle during the interval 0s <= t <= 2s


If the particle starts from rest, what is its speed at t = 2.0s ?




Homework Equations



F=ma

I think this is the only relevant equation.

The Attempt at a Solution




So I know that Force = Mass * Accel, therefore Accel = F/m. So because I am given the force as a function and have the mass I basically have the acceleration function.. Is this correct so far? Because velocity is the integral of acceleration, I can get velocity with that.
I graphed it online (for visual purposes), calculated the integral from 0 to 2 seconds and got the answer.

I'm having trouble doing it on paper. Simplifying a = F/m, I get: a = 10(sin (pi/2)*t )/ .21
Integrating this I pull out the 10/.21 constant,
the integral of sin( (t*pi) /2 ) is: -cos( (t*pi)/2 ) * (pi/2) evaluated at 2 and 0. (that second pi/2 is correct by chain rule?)

I'm evaluating this as -cos( (2pi)/2 )* (pi/2) - -cos(0) (pi/2)

Both cos(0) and cos(pi) == 1

so: -(pi/2) + (pi/2) = 0

Multiplied by that constant part on the outside (10/.21) is still zero..

I don't see why this is wrong.. The link below at wolframalpha.com shows what I used to get the answer:
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integral+of+(10*sin((pi*x)/2)/.21)+from+0+to+2


Any help on how to solve this on paper (the steps) or help finding my stupid mistake is would be appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
the integral of sin( (t*pi) /2 ) is: -cos( (t*pi)/2 ) * (pi/2)

It should be -cos(πt/2)*2/π
 

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