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What Would Happen To The Wave-particle Dualism If Planck’s Constant H=0?

  1. Dec 14, 2007 #1
    Hi could somebody help me with the question above? I think If Planck’s constant was 0 then the energy in that region which is proportional to the frequency of the light wave would be 0 also. But I think I'm way off! Please help!
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 14, 2007 #2

    malty

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    Gold Member

    E=hf

    E=0*f

    therefore f= E/0

    Dividing by zero destroys the universe
    Uh oh!

    Sorry I just couldn' resist:)


    Dunno honestly don't have a clue . .
     
  4. Dec 14, 2007 #3
    De Broglie's wavelength is given by the equation

    [tex] \lambda = \frac{h}{p} [/tex]

    where h is Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle. What happens to wave-particle duality if h = 0 should be fairly clear now.
     
  5. Dec 14, 2007 #4

    malty

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    uhhhhh ....It isn't to me:uhh:
     
  6. Dec 14, 2007 #5

    dst

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    h = 0 then 0 * (1/p) = ? 0x = ?
     
  7. Dec 14, 2007 #6

    cristo

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    If you take the limit as Planck's constant tends to zero then quantum physics reduces to classical physics.
     
  8. Dec 15, 2007 #7
    Yes, that means there will no such thing as wave-particle duality. Waves will behave like waves and particles will behave like particles.
     
  9. Dec 15, 2007 #8
    Thank you !!

    Thanks to all for answering the wave-particle duality question...
     
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