What Would Happen To The Wave-particle Dualism If Planck’s Constant H=0?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the implications of setting Planck's constant, h, to zero on the concept of wave-particle dualism in quantum mechanics. Participants explore the relationship between energy, frequency, and momentum in this hypothetical scenario.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Exploratory

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants attempt to analyze the consequences of h being zero, referencing equations related to energy and De Broglie's wavelength. Some express confusion about the implications, while others suggest that quantum physics would revert to classical physics.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various interpretations being explored. Some participants offer insights into the relationship between quantum and classical physics, while others express uncertainty about the implications of their reasoning.

Contextual Notes

There is a notable lack of consensus on the interpretation of wave-particle duality under the condition of h = 0, and some participants question the assumptions underlying their discussions.

khorsani
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Hi could somebody help me with the question above? I think If Planck’s constant was 0 then the energy in that region which is proportional to the frequency of the light wave would be 0 also. But I think I'm way off! Please help!
 
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E=hf

E=0*f

therefore f= E/0

Dividing by zero destroys the universe
Uh oh!

Sorry I just couldn' resist:)


Dunno honestly don't have a clue . .
 
De Broglie's wavelength is given by the equation

[tex]\lambda = \frac{h}{p}[/tex]

where h is Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle. What happens to wave-particle duality if h = 0 should be fairly clear now.
 
kudoushinichi88 said:
De Broglie's wavelength is given by the equation

[tex]\lambda = \frac{h}{p}[/tex]

where h is Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle. What happens to wave-particle duality if h = 0 should be fairly clear now.

uhhhhh ...It isn't to me:rolleyes:
 
malty said:
uhhhhh ...It isn't to me:rolleyes:

h = 0 then 0 * (1/p) = ? 0x = ?
 
If you take the limit as Planck's constant tends to zero then quantum physics reduces to classical physics.
 
Yes, that means there will no such thing as wave-particle duality. Waves will behave like waves and particles will behave like particles.
 
Thank you !

Thanks to all for answering the wave-particle duality question...
 

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