What Would Happen To The Wave-particle Dualism If Planck’s Constant H=0?

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Hi could somebody help me with the question above? I think If Planck’s constant was 0 then the energy in that region which is proportional to the frequency of the light wave would be 0 also. But I think I'm way off! Please help!
 
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E=hf

E=0*f

therefore f= E/0

Dividing by zero destroys the universe
Uh oh!

Sorry I just couldn' resist:)


Dunno honestly don't have a clue . .
 
De Broglie's wavelength is given by the equation

[tex]\lambda = \frac{h}{p}[/tex]

where h is Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle. What happens to wave-particle duality if h = 0 should be fairly clear now.
 
kudoushinichi88 said:
De Broglie's wavelength is given by the equation

[tex]\lambda = \frac{h}{p}[/tex]

where h is Planck's constant and p is the momentum of the particle. What happens to wave-particle duality if h = 0 should be fairly clear now.

uhhhhh ...It isn't to me:rolleyes:
 
malty said:
uhhhhh ...It isn't to me:rolleyes:

h = 0 then 0 * (1/p) = ? 0x = ?
 
If you take the limit as Planck's constant tends to zero then quantum physics reduces to classical physics.
 
Yes, that means there will no such thing as wave-particle duality. Waves will behave like waves and particles will behave like particles.
 
Thank you !

Thanks to all for answering the wave-particle duality question...