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What would have been the Maxwell's equations if there were magnetic monopoles?

  1. Apr 23, 2012 #1
    I am specifically talking about differential forms of Maxwell's equations here-
    I think ( Tell me if I am incorrect here....) since the divergence of the magnetic field is zero, we have to say it is incorrect for my above problem, so the equation should have been the divergence of magnetic field is magnetic charge density divided by what ? ( Is it the permeability of free space ?)
    Also, I think ( not too sure) the faraday's law: [itex]\frac{-\partial B}{\partial t}[/itex] is also incorerct here- but I am not sure why is it and what should have been the equation for the above condition ?
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 23, 2012 #2


    Staff: Mentor

  4. Apr 24, 2012 #3
    Heaviside's original rendition of the "Maxwell Equations" in vector form is expressed where a magnetic charge may be present. In his usage, he would normalize away the charge after the bulk of the calculations for any particular problem were done.

    A charge, in Maxwell's theory is a more general concept than monopole, if by monopole you mean point singularity. A charge is a discontinuity of polarization and may therefore be a point, line segment, line or surface.

    In Dirac theory and in related theories such as the Harmuth ansatz, the magnetic monopole or charge is not necessarily a persistent object. It can be created and evaporated in a very short period of time under certain conditions.
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