maverick6664
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In my book (Greiner's Quantum Mechanics, vol2, symmetries) says after calculation with Clebsch-Gordan coefficients,
|\pi^0\rangle = \frac 1 2 (u\uparrow \overline{u} \downarrow + d\uparrow \overline{d} \downarrow - u\downarrow \overline{u} \uparrow - d\downarrow \overline{d} \uparrow ),
And I confirmed it.
Ignoring spin, It's |\pi^0\rangle = \frac 1 {\sqrt{2}} (u \overline{u} + d \overline{d})
However, some sites denote, it's the same: the sum (ex, this one, but others denote it's different; minus sign (ex. this one).
I wonder which is correct. I konw Internet resource is sometimes incorrect. And the latter is wiki... Or they mean the same? because u \overline{u} and d \overline{d} are orthogonal.
But if I do \hat{T_-}|\pi^+}\rangle = \hat{T_-}u\overline{d} = \frac 1 {\sqrt{2}} (u\overline{u} + d\overline{d}), only plus is correct. (phase is ignored and each hand is normalized.)
So will anyone give me any hint which is correct or both are correct? I think at least plus is correct.
Thanks in advance!
|\pi^0\rangle = \frac 1 2 (u\uparrow \overline{u} \downarrow + d\uparrow \overline{d} \downarrow - u\downarrow \overline{u} \uparrow - d\downarrow \overline{d} \uparrow ),
And I confirmed it.
Ignoring spin, It's |\pi^0\rangle = \frac 1 {\sqrt{2}} (u \overline{u} + d \overline{d})
However, some sites denote, it's the same: the sum (ex, this one, but others denote it's different; minus sign (ex. this one).
I wonder which is correct. I konw Internet resource is sometimes incorrect. And the latter is wiki... Or they mean the same? because u \overline{u} and d \overline{d} are orthogonal.
But if I do \hat{T_-}|\pi^+}\rangle = \hat{T_-}u\overline{d} = \frac 1 {\sqrt{2}} (u\overline{u} + d\overline{d}), only plus is correct. (phase is ignored and each hand is normalized.)
So will anyone give me any hint which is correct or both are correct? I think at least plus is correct.
Thanks in advance!
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